Download bsnl Placement Papers in MS Word and PDF Format for Job Interview

BSNL DGM MODEL PAPER- PART-A,BSNL DGM model questions for practice, BSNL DGM solved question papers, BSNL Previous years solved Question papers, BSNL JTO,DGM Technical Assistant previous years solved question papers, BSNL Model questions for practice, BSNL fre solved sample placement papers

BSNL DGN Objective questions
1. First-level managers must possess skills, which include knowledge of and proficiency in the methods, processes and procedures for carrying out activities.
a. Human
b. Conceptual
c. Design
d. Technical

2. Which of the following skills is important at all levels of an organization?
a. Conceptual
b. Design
c. Human
d. Technical

3. Which of the following skills indicates the ability to solve problems in ways that will benefit the enterprise?
a. Design
b. Human
c. Conceptual
d. Technical

4. Managers possessing skill have the ability to understand and coordinate the full range of corporate objectives and activities.
a. Design skill
b. Human skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Technical skill

5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only limited value for developing management theory?
a. Group behavior approach
b. Systems approach
c. Operational approach
d. Empirical approach

6. Which of the following is also known as the mathematical approach?
a. Operational approach
b. Management science approach
c. Management roles approach
d. Systems approach

7. Which of the following approaches to management advocates a system ofcooperation using both interpersonal and group behavioral aspects?
a. Sociotechnical approach
b. Contingency approach
c. Situational approach
d. Cooperative social systems approach

8. Under which system does a worker,s wage increase in proportion to theoutput produced?
a. Time-and-motion study
b. Piece-rate incentive system
c. Micromotion study
d. Gantt Chart

9. Who proposed the task-and-bonus system under which workers are given a bonus if the work is completed before the set time?
a. Frederick W. Taylor
b. Henry L. Gantt
c. Frank B. Gilbreth
d. Max Weber

10. The theorists ignored the human desire for job satisfaction.
a. Scientific management
b. Bureaucratic management
c. Administrative theory
d. Management science

11. Which type of management approach focuses only on the economic andphysical needs of workers and ignores their social needs?
a. Scientific management
b. Bureaucratic management
c. Administrative management
d. Operations management

12.Which one of the following did not contribute to the behavioral concept ofmanagement?
a. Elton Mayo
b. Mary Parker Follet
c. Chris Argyris
d. Henry R. Towne

13. A branch of the classical viewpoint of management, is basedon Max Weber,s research in the field of management.
a. Bureaucratic management
b. Scientific management
c. Administrative management
d. Weber management


14. which of the following is the fastest memory in the terms of accessibility?
1. Read only memory
2. Cache memory
3.Random Access memory
4. Dynamic random access Memory

15. Registers are associated with_________
1. Input
2. memory
3.control
4. output

16. _______________ is an example of sequential storage device
1. Magnetic Tape
2. floppy disk
3. Hard disk
4. CD-ROM

17.Programs and procedures in an information system are _____________
1. data resources
2. people resources
3. hardware and software resources
4. all the above

18.The information circulated in a company grapevine can be called as ____________
1. knowledge information
2. sampled information
3.informal information
4. organizational information

19.what is the term used to refer to alignment of the beginning and end of lines
1.indentation
2. justification
3. superscript
4 font

20. what is the character positioned below normal text called?
1. superscript
2. italic
3.font
4.subscript

21. spread sheet is a ________________
1. superscript
2.Italic
3.font
4.subscript

22.The first Factories Act was enacted in
a),1881
b),1895
c),1897
d),1885
Answer- a), 1881

23, Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
a. Who has completed 18 years of age
b. who is less than 18 years
c. who is more than 14 years
d. who is more than 15 years
Answer- a). Who has completed 18 years of age

24. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as _________

a. Occupier
b. Manager
c. Chairman
d. Managing Director.
Answer - a. Occupier

25, The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of Factories Act, 1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters.

a. 9.9
b. 10.2
c. 14.2
d. 13.2
Answer- c. 14.2


26,The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the organization if it employees _______ or more employees.

a. 200
b. 250
c. 300
d. 150
Answer- b. 250

27.Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
a. Who has completed 17 years of age
b. who is less than 18 years
c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
d. None of these
Answer- c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.

28, Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948
a.Canteen
b. Creches
c.First Aid
d.Drinking water.
Answer- d. Drinking water.

29, First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons
a. 125
b. 135
c. 150
d. 160
Answer- c. 150

30,Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500
d. 750
Answer- a. 1000

31 Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.
a. 250
b. 230
c. 300
d. 275
Answer- a. 250

32 Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in a month.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 28
Answer- c. 20

33. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.
a. 500
b. 250
c. 600
d. 750
Answer- a. 500

34. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more than______
a. 400
b. 350
c. 500
d. 450
Answer- c. 500

35, Creche is to be provided if ______ or more lady employees are engaged.
a. 25
b. 32
c. 30
d. 40
Answer- c. 30

36. An adult worker can upto ____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 12
Answer-. b. 9

37, Obligations of Workers under the Factories Act 1947 was discussed in section -----
a) 78
b) 101
c) 111
d) 99
Answer - Sec.111

38. The term Sabbatical is connected with
a) Paid leave for study
b) Paternity leave
c) Maternity leave
d) Quarantine leave
Answer- Paid leave for study

39. Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947 Says about
a) Welfare officer
b) Canteen
c) Rest room
d) Crèche
Answer is - Welfare officer

40. Section 2 ( K )of the Factories Act 1947 says about
a) Manufacturing Process
b) Factory
c) Worker
d) None of these
Answer : Manufacturing Process

41., If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------------- to carry out the prescribed duties
a) Safety Officer
b) Welfare officer
c) Security officer
d) None of these
Answer : a) Safety Officer

42. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall liable for punishment up to
a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both
b) 6 months or fine upto 10, 000 or both
c) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both
d) None of these
Answer –a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both.

43. In case of fatal accident occurred inside the factory , a separate accident report shall be sent to the District magistrate in Form No ---- within 12 hours
a) Form No:16
b) Form No:18 A
c) Form No :18 B
d) Form No:18

44., Manager of every factory should sent a annual report to the Inspectorate of factories containing details like numbers of workers employed , leave with wages, safety officers ,ambulance room, canteen, shelter, accidents in form no --- on or before 31 st January
a) Form No : 22
b) Form No: 21
c) Form No: 25 A
d) Form No: 25 B
Answer: a) Form No: 22

45. If any employee found violating the section 20 of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to
a)Rs. 10
b) Rs. 5
c) Rs. 15
d) Rs.20
Answer :b ) Rs. 5

46. Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says about
a) Fencing of machineries
b) Facing of machineries
c) Work on near machinery in motion
Answer-d) Workers participation in safety management

47. Find the minimum value of the objective function where minimum z=20x+35y
1. 2100
2.1600
3.800
4.3700

48. which of the following is not an advantage of MRP system?
1. Ability to price competitively
2. Better Customer service
3. longer idle time
4. Reduced set up and tear –down costs

49. Accounting Ratios are important tools used by
(a) Managers,
(b) Researchers,
(c)Investors,
(d) All of the above

50. Net Profit Ratio Signifies:
(a) Operational Profitability,
(b) Liquidity Position,
(c) Big-term Solvency,
(d)Profit for Lenders.

51. Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
(a)Fixed Assets,
(b)Sales,
(c)Purchases,
(d)Stock.

52.. In Ratio Analysis, the term Capital Employed refers to:
(a)Equity Share Capital,
(b)Net worth,
(c)Shareholders, Funds,
(d)None of the above.

53. Dividend Payout Ratio is:
(a)PAT Capital,
(b)DPS ÷ EPS,
(c) Pref. Dividend ÷ PAT,
(d) Pref. Dividend ÷ Equity Dividend.

54 DU PONT Analysis deals with:
(a) Analysis of Current Assets,
(b)Analysis of Profit,
(c)Capital Budgeting,
(d) Analysis of Fixed Assets

55. In Net Profit Ratio, the denominator is:
(a)Net Purchases,
(b)Net Sales,
(c) Credit Sales,
(d) Cost of goods sold.

56. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inven¬tory with:
(a) Average Sales,
(b)Cost of Goods Sold,
(c)Total Purchases,
(d) Total Assets.

57.. The term ,EVA, is used for:
(a)Extra Value Analysis,
(b)Economic Value Added
,(c)Expected Value Analysis,
(d)Engineering Value Analysis.

58.. Return on Investment may be improved by:
(a)Increasing Turnover,
(b) Reducing Expenses,
(c)Increasing Capital Utilization,
(d)All of the above.

59.. In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:
(a)Current Profit,
(b)Current Liabilities,
(c)Fixed Assets,
(d)Equity Share Capital.

60.. ABC Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 1.5: 1 and Net Current Assets of Rs. 5,00,000. What are the Current Assets?
(a)Rs. 5,00,000,
(b)Rs. 10,00,000,
(c)Rs. 15,00,000,
(d) Rs. 25,00,000

61. There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it refer to?
(a)That the Capital Employed has reduced,
(b)That the Profitability has gone up,
(c)That debtors collection period has increased,
(d)That Sales has decreased.

62. Which of the following does not help to increase Current Ratio?
(a)Issue of Debentures to buy Stock,
(b)Issue of Debentures to pay Creditors,
(c)Sale of Investment to pay Creditors,
(d)Avail Bank Overdraft to buy Machine.

63. Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:
(a)Borrowing More,
(b)Issue of Debentures,
(c)Issue of Equity Shares,
(d)Redemption of Debt.

64.. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:
(a)Price Earnings Ratio,
(b) Net Profit Ratio,
(c)Earnings per Share,
(d) Dividend per Share.

65. Trend Analysis helps comparing performance of a firm
(a)With other firms,
(b)Over a period of firm,
(c)With other industries,
(d) None of the above.

66. A Current Ratio of Less than One means:
(a)Current Liabilities < Current Assets,
(b)Fixed Assets > Current Assets,
(c)Current Assets < Current Liabilities,
(d) Share Capital > Current Assets.

67. XYZ Ltd. has earned 8% Return on Total Assests of Rs. 50,00,000 and has a Net Profit Ratio of 5%. Find out the Sales of the firm.
(a) Rs. 4,00,000,
(b)Rs. 2,50,000,
(c)Rs. 80,00,000,
(d)Rs. 83,33,333.

68. Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in
(a)Profitability Position,
(b)Liquidity Position,
(c)Market Share Position,
(d) Debt Position.

69. Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?
(a)Current Ratio,
(b)Acid Test Ratio,
(c) Interest Coverage Ratio,
(d) Debtors Turnover.

70. Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for such behavior could be:
(a) Increase in Costs of Goods Sold,
(b)If Increase in Expense,
(c) Increase in Dividend,
(d)Decrease in Sales.

71. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
(c)Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
(d) Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

72. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
(a) 0.80,
(b)0.25,
(c) 1.00,
(d)0.75

73. Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders?
(a) Return on Assets,
(b) Earnings Per Share,
(c) Net Profit Ratio,
(d)Return on Investment.

74. Return on Assets and Return on Investment Ratios be¬long to:
(a) Liquidity Ratios,
(b)Profitability Ratios,
(c)Solvency Ratios,
(d)Turnover.

75. XYZ Ltd. has a Debt Equity Ratio of 1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry average. It means that the firm has:
(a) Higher Liquidity,
(b)Higher Financial Risk,
(c)Higher Profitability,
(d)Higher Capital Employed.

BSNL previous years solved sample placement papers,BSNL DGM,JTO Tech Assistant questions with answers,BSNL model questions for practicce,BSNL technical assistant question papers wit answers and detalied explnations.



1. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
(a) Sinusoidal (Ans)
(b) Square
(c) rectangular
(d) triangular

2. Strain gauge is
(a) not a transducer
(b) an active transducer (Ans)
(c) not an electronic
(d) none

3. A high Q coil has
(a) large band width
(b) high losses (Ans)
(c) low losses
(d) flat response

4. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
(a) 1.810 %
(b) 0.181 %
(c) 12.45 % (Ans)
(d) 0.0018%
(Explanation : Limiting error at full scale = 1/100 X 150 = 1.5 volt
the true reading may be (8.3 + 1.5) Volt the relative error = 1.5/100 X 8.3 = 12.45 % )

5. The ,h, parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
(a) High frequency, large signal operation
(b) High frequency, small signal operation
(c) Low frequency, small signal operation (Ans)
(d) Low frequency, large signal operation

6. A system is casual if the output of any time depends only on
(a) Values of input in the past and in the future
(b) Values of input at that time and in the past (Ans)
(c) Values of input at that time and in the future
(d) None

7. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
(a) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat
(b) of change of state from gas to metal
(c) the energy greater than the work function (Ans)
(d) the energy is greater than Fermi level

8. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is
(a) amplifier
(b) triode
(c) diode (Ans)
(d) transistor

9. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
(a) Cathode
(b) anode
(c) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (Ans)
(d) Plate

10. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input
(a) Amplify the noise as much as the signal
(b) Reduce the noise (Ans)
(c) Increase the noise
(d) Not effect the noise

PART II
11. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
(a) SCR (Ans)
(b) PCR
(c) VCR
(d) DCR

12. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
(a) constant voltage source
(b) constant current source (Ans)
(c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
(d) resistance

13. A node current in an thyristor is made up of
(a) electrons only
(b) electrons or holes
(c) electrons and holes (Ans)
(d) holes only

14. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
(a) ferrite : 20:1
(b) laminated iron : 1:1
(c) ferrite : 1:1 (Ans)
(d) powdered iron :1:1

15. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
(a) 1 phase full converter
(b) 3 phase half wave converter
(c) 3 phase semi converter (Ans)
(d) 3 phase full converter

16. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
(a) square wave
(b) triangular wave (Ans)
(c) step function
(d) pulsed wave

17. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor convertor uses a 230/200 V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(a) 100 V
(b) 141.4V
(c) 200 V
(d) 282.8 V (Ans)
(Explanation : For centre taped transformer in output side the PIV = 2 Vrms = 2 x 200/√2 = 282.8 Volt)

18. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
(a) T keeping Ton constant (Ans)
(b) Ton keeping T constant
(c) Toff keeping T constant
(d) None of the above

19. An ideal power supply consist of
(a) A Very small output resistance
(b) Zero internal resistance (Ans)
(c) Very large input resistance
(d) Very large output resistance

20. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(a) ξ
(b) y
(c) η
(d) ε (Ans)

21. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
(a) 1111101 (Ans)
(b) 0001 0010 0101
(c) 7D
(d) None of the above
Explanation :

22. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures

(a) Current series feedback (Ans)
(b) Current shunt feedback
(c) Voltage series feedback
(d) Voltage shunt feedback

23. Class A amplifier is used when
(a) No phase inversion is required
(b) Highest voltage gain is required
(c) dc voltages are to be amplified
(d) Minimum distortion is desired (Ans)

24. Identify the correct match for the give transistor

(a) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
(b) Depletion type N channel MOSFET (Ans)
(c) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
(d) Depletion type P channel MOSFET

25. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter , the constructed signal will be
(a) Distortionless
(b) Small in amplitude
(c) Having higher frequencies suppressed
(d) Distorted (Ans)

26. IC which has quad 2 input AND gates
(a) 7411
(b) 7404
(c) 7400
(d) 7408 (Ans)

27. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
(a) left shift register
(b) right shift register
(c) shift registers (Ans)
(d) none of the above

28. The expression ABC can be simplified to
(a) A B C
(b) AB + BC + CA
(c) A B + C
(d) A + B + C (Ans)

29. Read the following :
(i) Routh Herwitz,s criterion is in time domain
(ii) Root locus plot is in time domain
(iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain
(iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain (Ans)

(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All four are correct

30. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(a) count pulses
(b) store binary operation
(c) shift registers
(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip (Ans)

31. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50 mv and the total maximum input is 10 V. The number of bits required is
(a) 7
(b) 8 (Ans)
(c) 9
(d) 200

32. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
(a) Unit parabolic function
(b) Unit triplet
(c) Unit doublet (Ans)
(d) Unit ramp function

33. ------ watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
(a) 100
(b) 500
(c) 2000
(d) 1000 (Ans)

34. The ripple factor in an LC filter
(a) Increase with the load current
(b) Increases with the load resistance
(c) Remains constant with the load current
(d) Has the lowest value (Ans)

35. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
(a) Language digits
(b) Access digits
(c) Area codes (Ans)
(d) Central office codes

36. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
(a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
(b) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
(c) its use avoids receiver complexity (Ans)
(d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

37. The maximum phase shift than can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function
G0(S) = 1 + 6S
1 + 2S
(a) 15o
(b) 45o
(c) 30o (Ans)
(d) 60o
(Explanation : If GC(s) = 1 +Tn s
1 + Td s
then Q = tan -1 ωTn - tan-1 ωTd
Q = tan -1 6ω - tan-1 2ω
So maximum phase shift will be Q= 30o )

38. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
(a) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce again
(b) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action
(c) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback
(d) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action. (Ans)

39. Identify slope change at ω= 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
G (jω) = 5(1+j o.w)
jω (1 + j0.5ω) [ (1+j 0.6 ω/50) + ( jω/50)2]
(a) -80 dB/dec to - 60 dB/dec (Ans)
(b) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
(c) 20 dB/dec to - 40 dB/dec
(d) 40 dB/dec to - 20 dB/dec
(Explanation :
Factor Corner frequency Gain and angle
5 ----- 20 log5=14dB line parallel to x axis
1
jω ----- -20dB/dec passing through ω=1
1
1 + j0.5ω ω1=2 -20dB/dec slope originates from ω=2
1+0
(1+j 0.6 ω/50) + ( jω/50)2 ω2=7.07 -40 dB/dec slope originates from ω=7.07
1+j 0-1 ω ω3=10 +20dB/dec slope originates ω=10

40. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
G(s) H (s) = K
s(s+2) (s2 +2s +2)
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4 (Ans)

41. In a closed - loop transfer function
G (s) = 2600k(s + 25)
R (s) s4 +125s3 + 5100s2 + 65000s + 65000k
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
(a) + j228 (Ans)
(b) +j2.28
(c) +j1.14
(d) +j114

42. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 4 are correct (Ans)
(d) 2 and 3 are correct

43. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
(a) ANIK
(b) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat-1)
(c) WESTAR (Ans)
(d) MOLNIYA

44. When A = 0., B = 0, C=1 then in two input logic gate we get gate
(a) XOR gate
(b) AND gate
(c) NAND gate (Ans)
(d) NOR gate

45. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
(a) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
(b) amplifies the output of local oscillator
(c) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (Ans)
(d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

46. A duplexer is used to
(a) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
(b) isolate the antennas from the local oscillator
(c) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver (Ans)
(d) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference

47. Boolean algebra is based on
(a) numbers
(b) logic (Ans)
(c) truth
(d) symbols

48. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
(a) linear amplifier
(b) harmonic generators
(c) class C power amplifiers (Ans)
(d) class B untuned amplifiers

49. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
(a) maximum power of the transmitter
(b) pulse repetition frequency (Ans)
(c) width of the transmitted pulse
(d) sensitivity of the radar receiver

50. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
(a) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
(b) help vertical synchronization
(c) help horizontal synchronization (Ans)
(d) simplify the generation of the vertical syncpulse.

51. The frequency range 30MHz - 300 MHz is
(a) medium frequency
(b) very high frequency (Ans)
(c) super high frequency
(d) infrared frequency

52. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
(a) TE
(b) TM
(c) TEM (Ans)
(d) HE

53. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
(a) upto 18kms from each
(b) from 18 to 70 k m
(c) 70 to 500 km (Ans)
(d) above 500 km

54. A two cavity klystron tube is a
(a) velocity modulated tube (Ans)
(b) frequency modulated tube
(c) Amplitude modulated tube
(d) simple triode

55. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
(a) doubled
(b) quadrupted
(c) unchanged (Ans)
(d) halved

56. Which one is a cross field tube
(a) Klystron
(b) Reflex Klystron
(c) Magnetron (Ans)
(d) TWT

57. The degree of coupling depends on
(a) Size of hole
(b) location of holes (Ans)
(c) size and location of holes
(d) not depend on size or location of hole

58. The thermal noise depends on
(a) direct current through device
(b) resistive component of resistance (Ans)
(c) reactive component of impedance
(d) load to connected

59. The charge on a hole is
(a) 1.6 x 10-9
(b) 1.6 x 10-19 (Ans)
(c) 1.6 x 101
(d) 1.6 x 1020

60. Intel,s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
(a) seven 8 bit registers (Ans)
(b) 8 seven bits registers
(c) seven 7 bit registers
(d) eight 8 bit registers

PART -III
61. The words ,Satyameva Jayate, have been taken from
(a) Vedas (Ans)
(b) Bhagwad Gita
(c) Mahabharata
(d) None of these

62. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
(a) USA (Ans)
(b) USSR
(c) China
(d) Pakistan

63. ,Kathakali, dance is connected with
(a) Kerala (Ans)
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu

64. The term "Ashes" is associated with
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket (Ans)
(c) Soccer
(d) None of these

65. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
(a) Gupta architecture
(b) Rashtrakutlas architecture
(c) Chalukya architecture
(d) Chola architecture (Ans)

66. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
(a) Joint sitting of the two Houses
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India (Ans)
(d) By a special committee for the purpose

67. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa ?
(a) Meghdoot
(b) Raghuvansha
(c) Sariputra Prakarma
(d) Ritushamhara (Ans)

68. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
(a) Akbar the Great (Ans)
(b) Mahmud Ghaznvi
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Alauddin Khilji

69. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new
(a) Era of great history (Ans)
(b) List
(c) Book
(d) Year

70. An though it mourns the death of someone , need not be sad
(a) Funny poem
(b) Newspaper article
(c) Orthodox talk
(d) Elegy (Ans)

71. If stare is glance so gulp is
(a) Slip (Ans)
(b) Tell
(c) Salk
(d) Admire

72. He hardly works means
(a) The work is hard
(b) He is hard
(c) The work is easy
(d) He work very little (Ans)

73. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
(a) antipathy
(b) unsightliness (Ans)
(c) inexperience
(d) languor

74. Nanometre is -----part of a metre
(a) Millionth
(b) Ten millionth (Ans)
(c) Billionth
(d) Ten billionth

75. Malaria affects
(a) Liver
(b) Spleen (Ans)
(c) Intestine
(d) Lungs

76. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
(a) Aircraft carrier
(b) Submarine
(c) Multiple-purpose fighter
(d) Anti-aircraft gun (Ans)

77. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated ?
(a) Best film director
(b) Best musician
(c) Best documentary (Ans)
(d) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

78. Who developed the branch of mathematics know as Calculus ?
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Newton
(c) Einstein (Ans)
(d) Archimedes

79. In which state is Kanha Park situated ?
(a) M.P.
(b) U.P. (Ans)
(c) Assam
(d) W. Bengal

80. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day ?
(a) 24th October (Ans)
(b) 4th July
(c) 8th August
(d) 10th December

BSNL Technical Assistant Written Test Pattern

PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90
PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90
Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL.


Examination : The examination is fully objective multiple choice pattern . There will be a written test comprising of 3 ( three) parts consisting of Part-I (General ability test - 20 marks), Part-II (Basic Engineering-90 marks) and Part-III (Specialization - 90 marks) of 3 hours duration. Candidates will have the option to answer Part-II & III in Hindi or English language. Option once exercised in respect of medium of answer shall be final and in no way will be allowed to change. Scheme and syllabus of the examination is in Annexure-II

SCHEME & SYLLABUS FOR TTA DIRECT RECRUIMENT EXAMINATION

The standard of Paper in General ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma holder. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian Polytechnic. There shall be a single multiple choice objective types Paper of 3 hrs duration as per given below:
Paper Marks Time
PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 3hrs
PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90
Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL.

Detailed syllabus
PART-I:
Detailed syllabus
PART-I: GENERAL ABILITY TEST – 20 MARKS
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercise such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple-choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions on current events, general knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experiences as may be expected of Diploma holder.

PART-II: BASIC ENGINEERING –90 MARKS

Detailed Syllabus is as under:
1. Applied mathematics: Co-ordinate Geometry, Vector Algebra; Matrix and Determinant; Differential Calculus; Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order; Fourier series; Laplace Transform; Complex Number; Partial Differentiation.
2. Applied Physics: Measurement- Units and Dimension; Waves, Acoustic, Ultrasonic; Light; Laser and its Application, Atomic Structure and Energy Levels.
3. Basic Electricity: Electrostatics; Coulomb’s law, Electric field, Gauss’s theorem, concept of potential difference, concept of capacitance and capacitors; Ohm’s law, power and energy, Kirchhoff’s voltage, current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits, Basic Magnetism;Electric Magnetism; Electromagnetic Induction; Concept of alternating voltage & current; Cells and Batteries, Voltage and Current Sources, The venin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem and their applications.
4. Electronics Devices and Circuits: Classification of materials into conductor, semi conductor, insulator etc, electrical properties, magnetic materials, various types of relays, switches and connectors. Conventional representation of electric & electronics circuits elements. Active and passive components; semi conductor Physics; Semiconductor Diode; Bipolar transistor & their circuits; Transistor Biasing stabilisation of operating point; Single stage transistor amplifier; field effect transistor, Mosfet circuits application.

Multistage Transistor Amplifier; Transistor Audio Power Amplifier; feedback in Amplifier; Sinusoidal; Oscillators; Tuned Voltage Amplifier; Opto Electronics Devices and their applications; Operational Amplifier, Wave shaping and switching circuits.
Block diagram of IC. Timer (such as 555) and is working; Motivation Circuits; Time Base Circuits; Tnyristory and UT Regulated Power Supply.
5. Digital Techniques: Applications and advantages of digital system; number system ( binary and hexadecimal); Logic Gates; Logic Simplication; Codes and Parity; Arithmetic Circuits; Decoders, Display Devices and Associated Circuits,Multliplexers and De- multiplexers; batches and Flip Flops; Counters; Shift Registers; Memories A/D and D/A converters.


PART-III: SPECIALIZATION – 90 MARKS
Detailed Syllabus is as under:-
1. Electrical:
3 phase’s vs single-phase supply, Star data connections, relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements; construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator –AC & DC transformers,starters,rectifiers, inverters, battery charges, batteries, servo and stepper motor, contactor control circuits, switchgear, relays, protection devices & schemes, substation, protective relaying, circuits breaker, generator protection. Transformer protection, feeder & lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection, lightening arrestor,earthing, voltage stabilizer & regulators, power control devices & circuits phase controlled rectifiers,inverters,choppers dual converters cycloconverters; power electronics application in control of drivers, refrigeration and air conditioning.
2. Communication:
Modulation and de- modulation – and principles and operation of various type of AM, FM and PM modulator/demodulator pulse modulation – TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principle and applications of PCM.
Introduction of basic block diagram of digital and data communication system. Coding error detection and correction techniques; digital modulation techniques – ASK, ICW, FSK,PSK; Characteristic/ working of data transmission circuits; UART,USART;Modems ; protocols and their function; brief idea of ISDN interfaces; local area Net work, carrier Telephony – futures of carrier telephone system.
Microwave Engineering; Microwave Devices; Waves –guides; microwaves component; microwave Antennas; Microwaves communication systems- block diagram and working principle of microwave communication link.
3 Network, Filters and Transmission Lines:
Two port network; Attenuators; Filters; Transmission Lines and their applications characteristic impedance of line; concept of refection and standing waves on a transmission line; Transmission line equation; principles of impedance matching, Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.
4. Instruments and Measurements:
Specification of instruments- accuracy, precision, sensitivity, resolution range, Errors in measurements and loading effect; principles of voltage, current and resistance measurements; Transducers, measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices, pressure measuring devices flow measuring devices, power control devices & circuits. Types of AC milli voltmeters – Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope, front panel controls; impedance Bridges and Q- Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic probes, signature analyzer and logic analyzer, signal generator, distortion factor meter, spectrum analyzer.
5. Control System:
Basic elements of control system, open and closed loop system, concept of feedback, Block diagram of control system, Time lag, hysteresis, linearity concepts, self regulating and non- self regulating control systems. Transfer function of simple control components, single feedback configuration.
6. Time response of systems.
Stability Analysis Characteristics equation, Routh’s table, Nyquist criterion, Relative stability, phase margin and gain margin.
Routh Hurwitz criteria, root locus techniques, Bode plot, Power plot, Gain margin and phase margin.
7. Microprocessors:
Typical organization of a microprocessor system & functions of its various blocks; Architecture of a Microprocessors; Memories and I/O Interfacing, Brief idea of M/C assembly languages, Machines & Mnemonic codes; Instruction format and Addressing Mode; concept of Instruction set; programming exercises in assembly language; concept of interrupt Data transfer
techniques- sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer , DMA, serial output data, serial input data.
8. Computer:
Computer and its working, types of computers, familiarisation with DOS and Windows, concept of file, directory, folder, number system. Data representation programming - Elements of a high level programming language, Pascal, C: Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer Architecture, processor design, Control Unit design, memory Organisation. I/O system organisation. Microprocessors - Microprocessors Architecture, instruction set and simple Assembly level programming. Microprocessors based system design; typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses. Data communication principles, types and working principles of modems. Network principles, OSI model, functions of data link layer and network layer, networking components; Communication protocol- X.25, TCP/IP.

9. Database Management System:
Basic concepts, entity relationship model, relational model, DBMS based on relational model.

BSNL JTO Placement Papers

PART I

1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar

2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium andsilicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region

3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.

4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component

5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none

6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.

7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization

8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony

9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
(C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

10. An SCR can only be turned off via it,s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none

11.Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal

12 Withn nodes andb branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B)b - n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D)b + n + 1 links

13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45

14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.

15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate

16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that
(A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent
(D) it,s cost is low

17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current.

18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
(A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself
(C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier

19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode atµ0 bias is
(A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt

20. A UJT can
(A) be triggered by any one of it,s three terminals (B) not be triggered
(C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only.

21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radiusr and inform charge density in vacuum is

22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
A. ▼* B = 0
B. ▼. B = 0
__ __
__ __
C. ▼* B = p
D. ▼. B = p

23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a lengthL which is 0.05 1 at frequencyf and if it,s radiation resistances atf isR Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency2f will be
(A)R/2 ohms (B)R ohms (C)2R ohms (D)4R ohms

24.In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
(A)TE111 andTM111
(B)TE011 andTM011
(C)TE022 andTM111
(D)TE111 and TM011

25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly
(A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19

26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is
(A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782

27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then ifd is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
(A)d = 1.5 cm (B)d is less then 1.5 cm (C)d is greater then 1.5 cm (D)d = 3cm

28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
(A) an output power which is one - quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one - half of the input power
(C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power.

29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer
(A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
(C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals.

30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms.
Which of the following values represent full series armR1 and shunt armR2?
1.R1 = 147 Ω 2.R1 = 153 Ω 3.R1 = 1.5 Ω 4.R1= 3750 Ω
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4

31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294µH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
(A) 49Ω (B) 60Ω (C) 70Ω (D) 140Ω

32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1.Z11 =Z22
2.h12 =h21
3.Y12 = -Y21
4.BC - AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct.

34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
(A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged
(C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known.

35. A iron cored choke is a
(A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only

36. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on
(A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect

37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense?
(A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD.

38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
(A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor

39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is
(A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59%

40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
(A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz

41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
(A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular

42.Strain gauge is
(A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument

43.A highQ coil has
(A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response

44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
(A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018%

45. The ,h, parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
(A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation.

46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on
(A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past
(C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none

47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because
(A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal (C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi level

48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is
(A) amplifier (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor

49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate.

50.Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
(A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise
(D) Not effect the noise

PART - II

51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
(A) SCR (B) PCR (C) VCR (D) DCR

52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
(A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source
(C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance

53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
(A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only

54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are respectively
(A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1

55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a
(A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semiconverter (D) 3 phase full converter.

56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
(A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave

57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(A) 100V (B)141.4V (C)200V (D)282.8V

58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
(A)T keepingTon constant (B)Ton keepingT constant
(C)Toff keepingT constant (D) None of the above

59.An ideal power supply consist of
(A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance
(C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance

60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(A) ξ (B) γ (C) η (D) ε

61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
(A)1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove

62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures
(A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback
(C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback

63. Class A amplifier is used when
(A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required
(C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired.

64. Identity the correct match for the given transister
(A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET
(C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET

65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be
(A) Distortionless (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted

66.IC which has quad 2 input AND gates
(A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408

67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
(A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above

68. The expression ABC can be simplified to
__ __ __
A. A B C
B. AB+BC+CA
__
__ __ __
C. AB+ C
C. A + B + C

69. Read the following
(i) Routh Herwitz,s criterion is in time domain
(ii)Root locus plot is in time domain
(iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain
(iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
(A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct

70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation
(C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip.

71. InD/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200

72. On different unit impulse function results in
(A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function

73. ........... watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
(A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000

74. The ripple factor in an LC filter.
(A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance
(C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value

75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
(A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes

76.Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
(A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
(B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
(C) its use avoids receiver complexity
(D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity.

77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
1+6S
G0(S) =______
1+2S
(A) 15o
(B) 45o
(C) 30o
(D) 60o

78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
(A) Insertderivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain (B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action (C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback (D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action,

79. Identity slope change atω = 10 of the magnitudev/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function.
A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec
B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec
D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec

80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by K
G(s)H(s)=_____________
S(s+2)(s2+2s+2) Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

81. In a closed - loop transfer function
G(s)
2600 k(s+25)
____= _____________________________
H(s)
s4+125s3+5100s2+65000s+65000 k
A. ±j228 B. ±j2.28 C. ±j1.14 D. j114

82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct.

83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
(A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat - 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA

84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate
(A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate

85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
(A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator
(C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

86. A duplexer is used to
(A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
(B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
(C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
(D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference.

87. Boolean algebra is based on
(A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols

88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
(A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class untuned amplifiers

89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
(A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency
(C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver.

90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
(A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
(B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

91. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is
(A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency

92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
(A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE

93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
(A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km

94. A two cavity klystron tube is a
(A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube
(C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode

95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get.
(A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved.

96.Which one is a cross field tube
(A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT

97. The degree of coupling depends
(A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole

98. The thermal noise depends on
(A) direct current through device
(B) resistive component of resistance
(C) reactive component of impedance
(D) load to connected.

99. The charge on a hole is
(A) 1.6 x 10-9
(B) 1.6 x 10-19
(C) 1.6 x 101
(D) 1.6 x 1020

100. Intel,s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
(A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers.

PART III

101. The words Satyameva Jayathe, have been taken from
(A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these

102.Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
(A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan

103. "Kathakali" dance is connected with
(A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu

104. The term "Ashes" is associated with
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these.

105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
(A) Guptaarchit ecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola architecture

106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
(A) Joint sitting of the two Houses
(B) President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) BY a special committee for the purpose

107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa?
(A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara

108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
(A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji

109. With the beginings of spacetrav el, we entered a new
(A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year

110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
(A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy

111. If stare is glance so gulp is
(A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire

112. He hardly works means
(A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little.

113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
(A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor

114. Nanometre is....................... part of metre
(A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth

115. Malaria affects
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs

116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an
A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun

117. With which subject is " Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated.
(A) Best film director
(B) Best musician
(C) Best documentary
(D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry

118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
(A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes

119. In which state in Kanha Part situated?
(A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal

120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
(A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December

ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8.(D) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12.(B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16.(A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25.(B) 26.(B) 27.(A) 28.(A) 29. (B) 30.(A) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33.(D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39(C) 40.(C) 41. (A) 42. (B) 43.(C) 44. (C) 45.(C) 46.(B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61.(A) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69 (D) 70. (D) 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74 (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77.(C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (D) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89.(B) 90. (C) 91.(B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D) 113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (B) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (A).

1.One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It?s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?
a) IC/IE b) IC/IB c) IB/IC d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCR
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation
becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave
frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?
a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1
c) AD ? BC = 1
d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and
interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be
realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

3. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in
the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is
proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 ?300 MHz
b) 150 ? 200 MHz
c) 90 ? 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency
can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294
mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be ?
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through
circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it’s internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

38. A memoryless system is ?
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

39. An air capacitor is a ?
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ?
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?
a) off state to on state b) on state to off state c) on state to on state d) off state to off state

44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ?
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ?
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

50. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)

Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44

Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho

Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6

Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A

Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO

Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm

Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3

Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above

Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25

Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped

Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450 Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF

Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8 (infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator

Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance. The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8

Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps

Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these

Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt

Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3 metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach

Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance 500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz. If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8

Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m

Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of 200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2

Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements, while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units, while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current measuring units

Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA

Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog converter is given in the table below: The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error

Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a discontinuity at a distance d from the source end. The fault can be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)

Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on a dual-trace oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90

Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer

Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the screen when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.

Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode

Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need an instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity
Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier 1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope 2. Overcoming ground loop problem
C. Isolation amplifier 3. Phase difference between two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder 4. Signal recovery from noise 5. Observing very high frequency signals

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

Q. 31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched between heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode

Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC voltage is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase angle of 90°. What will be the output voltage and output current across R-L load at the instant of firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero

Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor

Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a DC motor whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100 volt and 0.5O respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6, the quadrant of operation DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth

Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and high power capability of bipolar transistor

Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP

Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may be considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds

Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the same atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed

Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the sequence: yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %

Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er’ and er” of 3 insulators at 1 KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er’ er”
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit capacitance at 1 KHz can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer

Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 µF, 500 µF and 100 µF are all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total charge stored in case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5

Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of time t(in second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced e.m.f. in the coil at the instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V

Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/ sec. If the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20 KHz, the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
(c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm

Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum arising due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny

Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical magnetic field for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a type II superconductor ranges from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other parameters unloaded. both superconductors are now subjected to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q =”4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–4q9,” x =”dQ4=”" q =”–4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–4q9,” x =”d4″ gap =” 1.1″ charge =” 1.6″ a =” 0.99,” ib =” lB” icbo =” 200″ ic =” 2.5″ ic =” 1.5mA” ic =” 3.5″ ic =” 4.5″ 1 =” A.Qn” 1 =” A.Qn+” 1 =” A.Qn” 1 =” A.Qn” k =” 0,” n =” (no.” mp =” 1.15.” x =” P.Q” y=”P.R” i0 =” X,” i1=” 0,” i2 =” X,” i3 =” X” i0 =” 0,” i1=”1,” i2 =” Y,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 1,” i2 =” 0,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 0,” i2 =” X,” i3 =” Z” k =” 0.” dt =” Ax(t)” a =”–2″ b =”10″ a =”0″ b =”0″ fc =” 0.16″ d =” 0.5456″ n =” 31.6″
(a) > 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000

Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to the following cascaded amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit

Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if the demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required that at any time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0)
(b) (I/RC) >= ?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <= 1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large

Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved

Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized

Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the receiver side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations of the satellite

Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is characterized by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the surface of the earth

Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation

Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the material used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron

Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off frequency of the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz

Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or contract in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance

Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in the input stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the following rearrangement can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6

Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in a binary search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are four lists of vertices encountered as we search for the number 363. Which list cannot be produced by this search through a binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363

Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12

Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and 1000 cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB

Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the microprogram counter and to load the control register. Which of the following asseration(s) is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.

2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with fetching the next microinstruction.

3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take longer than other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to be cost-effective because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ more than a limited subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer execution time

Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates binary operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top two operands are popped computation is performed and the result is pushed onto stack. Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?) by Reverse Polish notation in a stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions

Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec for a space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100 characters per line, its printing speed specifications in characters per second (cps) and time to print a line of characters are respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec

Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing

Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the chip select input would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE

Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction DCR B in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign

Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now consider the following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H

Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the instruction LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
……………….
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7

Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect

Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor by the following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1

Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the content of the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A

Q.93 In class – A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above

Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the adjoining figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current through the 48 ohm resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O
–
(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A

Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining figure is
Vcc
3 K
10 µF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz

Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical and base currents are not neglected, then which of the following is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1

Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above

Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/ R1) and gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)}, then which of the following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

Test Paper - IX

For an abrupt junction varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (c) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by –

a.) C a V1/3

b.) C a V-1/3

c.) C a V1/2

d.) C a V-1/2
The main purpose of plating the high frequency inductors and capacitors with silver is to

a.) Reduce their dc resistances

b.) Reduce their ac resistances

c. )Increase their ac resistance

d.) Increases their dc resistance

In a semiconductor the measurement of Hall coefficient provides information on the –

a. )Sign and mass of charge carriers

b.) Mass and concentration of charge carriers

c.) Sign of charge carries alone

d. )Sign and concentration of charge carriers

In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reduce –

a.) Hysteresis loss

b.) Eddy current loss

c. )Magnetic loss

d.) None

In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at the surface of the –

a.) Sheath

b.) conductor

c.) Insulator

d.) None

The series equivalent resistance value in case of a lossy capacitor will be –

a.) Very small

b.) Small

c.) Large

d.) None

One of the following material which has negative temperature coefficient of resistance is-

a. )Brass

b. )Copper

c. )Aluminium

d.) Carbon

The input impedance of a CRD is nearly –

a. )zero

b.) around 10 ohms

c. )around 100 ohms

d.) around one mega ohm

9. In order to convert intrinsic semiconductors into extrinsic ones, the level of doping required is about –

a.) 1 : 103

b.) 1 : 1

c.) 1 : 108

d. )1 : 105

One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –

a. )Thermocouple

b.) Piezoelectric pick up

c. )Photo-Voltaic cell

d. )LCD

The threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be lowered by –

a. )Using a thinner gate oxide

b. )Increasing the substrate concentration

c. )Both a & b

d.) None

The resistance of a metallic wire would –

a.) Increase as the operating frequency increases.

b.) Decrease as the operating frequency increases

c.) Remain unaffected on increasing the operating frequency

d.) None

One of the following statements which is correct regarding the two transistor model of the p-n-p-n four layer device is –

a. )It explains only the turn ON portion of the device characteristic.

b. )It explains only the turn OFF portion of the device characteristics.

c.) It explains only the negative region portion of the device characteristics.

d. )It explains all the regions of the device characteristics.

The gain-band width product of a junction transistor is affected to a maximum extent by –

a.) Base collector parasitic capacitance

b.) Base collector space charge layer capacitance

c.) Base collector space charge layer capacitance

d. )Base emitter diffusion capacitance

The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as early effect, hence reverse collector voltage –

a.) Increases both alpha and beta

b.) Decreases both alpha and beta

c.) Increases alpha but decreases beta

d.) Decreases beta but increase alpha.
One of the following theorem which is the manifestation of the law of conservation of energy is –

a. )Tellegen,s theorem

b.) Reciprocity theorem

c. )Thevenin,s theorem

d. )Norton,s theorem
The network shown in the fig. represents a :

a.) band-pass filter

b) low-pass filter

c.) high-pass filter

d.) band-stop filter
For the circuit shown in the fig. the current I is –

a.) indeterminable due to inadequate data

b) zero

c.) 4A

d.) 8A
1When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –

a.) 9W, 6W and 6W

b) 6W, 6W and 9W

c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
When two identical 3v, 1W batteries are connected in parallel with like polarity to like then the Norton equivalent circuit of this combination is –

a) 3A, 0.5W

b.) 6A, 1W

c.) 3A, 1W

d.) 6A, 0.5W

The dominate mode in a waveguide is characterized by-

a.)Longest cut off wavelength

b.) Shortest cut off wavelength

c.) Infinite attenuation

d.) Zero attenuation

22. The antenna most commonly used for TV broadcasting in the UHF band is

a.) Turnstile antenna

b.) Dipole antenna

c. ) Yagi antenna

d.)Rhombic antenna

The crossed dipoles in turnstile antenna are excited with voltage such that the phase shift between the voltage is-

a.) Zero

b.) 450

c.) 900

d.) 1800

The channel required for FM telemetry is-

a.) The same as that required for AM telemetry

b.) Smaller than the required for AM telemetry

c. ) 100 Times that required for AM telemetry

d. )10 times that required for AM telemetry

When the input impedance of loss-less transmission line is 100 ohms when terminated in a short circuit and 64 ohms when terminated in an open circuit, then the input impedance of the line is

a. ) 80 W

b. )164 W

c.) 36 W

Evanescent mode attenuation in a waveguide depends upon the-

a.) 32 GHz

b.) 8 GHz

Out of the following the one that mostly reflects the high frequency radio waves is-

a.) D

b). E

c.) F1

d.) F2

One of the following which is not a wide band antenna is-

a.) Marconi

b.) Helical

c.) Rhombic

d. )Folded dipole

The power carried by an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space changes with distance ‘d’ in proportion to-

a.) d

b.) 1/d

c.) 1/d2

d.) d2

In a FM receiver, the channel bandwidth is around-

a.) 10 KHz

b.) 20 KHz

c.) 75 KHz

d.) 200 KHz

When the power of transmitter is doubled, then the field strength at a point will go up by-

a.) 2 dB

b.) 6 dB

c.) 3 dB

d.) None

In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon-

a.) Ohmic losses of various conductors

b.) Radiation resistance

c.) Ground conductivity

d.) Atmospheric conditions


The signal to quantisation noise ratio in a PCM system depends upon –

a.) sampling rate

b.) number of quantisation levels

c.) massage signal band width

d.) size of the transmission system.
Q. is –

a.) directly proportional to damping factor.

b.) inversely proportional to damping factor.

c.) directly proportional to the square of damping factor.

d.) directly proportional to the cube of damping factor.


A dry cell is a –

a.) time variant only

b.) active device only

c.) time-varying and active device

d. )none.
A digital frequency counter can be converted to a DVM by addition of a stage of suitable –

a.) voltage controlled oscillator

b.) D/A converter to it

c.)power amplifier to it

d. )operational amplifier to it.


A 0 to 200 V dc moving coil voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 0.75 % of full scale reading. The voltage measured by instrument is 100V. The limiting error is –

a. )3%

b.) 2%

c. )1.5%

d. )0.75%
. The dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducers are similar to those of a –

a. )low pass filter

b.) high pass filter

c. )notch filter

d. )band stop filter
The temperature coefficient of resistance for a thermistor is –

a.) low and negative

b.) low and positive

c.) high and negative

d. )high and positive
Which of the following types of transducers can be used for measurement of an angular position is –

a. )Circular potentiometer

b.) Synchro

c.) E-pick off

d.) both a and b

A 300V full-scale deflection voltmeter has an accuracy of ± 2 %. When it reads 222V. The actual voltage –

a.) Lies between 217.56V and 226.44V

b.) Lies between 217.4V and 226.6V

c. )Lies between 216V and 228V

d. )Is exactly 222V

In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to holding current is-

a.) 0.4

b.) 1.0

c.) 2.5

d.)6.0

In a single-phase full converter bridge the average output voltage is given by-

a. b.

c. d.
A 3 phase semi converter can work as-

a.) converter for a = 00 to 1800

b.) converter for a = 00 to 900

c.) inverter for a = 900 to 1800

d.) inverter for a = 00 to 900
In the given arrangement A-3 the circuit is initially in steady stale with thyristor T off. At the moment thyristor T is turned on the thyristor current is –

a.) 2 A

b.) 22 A

c.) 40A

d.) 42 A
In dc choppers for chopping period T, the out put voltage can be controlled by FM by varying-

a) T keeping Ton constant

b.) T off keeping T constant

c.) T keeping T off constant

d.) none of the above

In synchronized UJT friggering of an SCR, voltage Vo across capacitor reaches UJT threshhold voltage thrice in each half cycle so that there are three firing pulses during each half cycle. The firing angle of the SCR can be controlled.

a.) once in each half cycle.

b.) thrice in each half cycle

c.) twice in each half cycle.

d. )four times in each half cycle.

When a series LC circuit is connected to a dc supply of V volt through a thyristor, then the peak current through thyristor is-

In a single phase voltage controller with RL load, ac output power can be controlled if

a). firing angle a > and (load phase angle) and conduction angle

b. )

c. )

d. )

Class C amplifier is mainly used as-

a. ) As an RF amplifier

b.) As stereo amplifier

c.) In communication sound equipment

d.) As distortion generator

Parasitic oscillations in amplifiers are caused by-

a. ) Negative feedback

b.) Push-pull operation

c.) Poor interstage coupling

d.) Transistor inter – junction capacitance

The input impedance in a voltage shunt feedback is-

a.) decreased

b.) Increased

c.) Remains unchanged

d. )None of the above

The signal/noise (S/N) ratio of an amplifier developing an output voltage of 10 v and a noise voltage of 1 mV is ------ dB

a.)40

b.)100

c.)-40

d.)80

The feedback factor ‘BAv’ is negative for negative feedback-

a.) True

b). False

c). May or May not be

d). None of the above

For sustaining oscillations in a feedback amplifier the loop gain should be-

a. ) Zero

b.) Less than one

c.) Greater than one

d.) None of the above

An operational amplifier has a slew rate of 100 v/ microsecond. For a frequency of 10MHz the maximum value of the sine-wave output voltage will be-

a.)100 v

b.)50/p v

c).10v

d).5v

A signal having uniformly distributed amplitude in the interval (-v,+v) is to be encoded using PCM with uniform quantization. The signal to quantizing noise ratio is determined by the-

a. ) Dynamic range of the signal

b.) Number of quantizing level

c.) Sampling rate

d). Power spectrum of signal

For signal amplitude modulated to a depth of 100 % by a sinusoidal signal power is-

a. ) Same as the power of unmodulated carrier

b.) Twice as the power of unmodulated carrier

c. ) 3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier

d.) 2/3 times the power of unmodulated carrier

Identify the false statement about MOSFET.

It can deplete in-

a.) Depletion mode

b). Enhancement modes

c.) Depletion and enhancement modes

d. )Depletion only mode
The process of conversion from an analog signal to digital signal is known as an –

a.) analog to digital conversion

b.) digital to analog conversion

c.) analog to analog conversion

d.) digital to digital conversion
TTL circuits are used in main frame computers because of their –

a.) fast operating speed

b.) slow operating speed

c.) medium operating speed

d.) none of the above
When a large number of analog signals is to be converted to digital form, an analog multiplexor is used. The A to D converter suitable in this case will be –

a.) dual slope type

b.) up down counter type

c.) successive approximation type

d.) forward counter type
Identity wrong rule for binary subtraction ?

a.) 0 – 0 = 0

b.) 1 – 0 = 1

c.) 1 – 1 = 0

d. )0 – 1 = -1 with borrow of 1
The binary equivalent of 9.37510 is –

a.) 1001.0112

b.) 1101.1012

c.) 1100.0112

d.) 1111.0012
In FM if transmission bandwidth is doubled then the SNR is-

a.) Also doubled

b) Improved fourfold

c.) Decreased by one fourth

d.) Unaffected
Main memory are of two kinds –

a.) ROM and RAM

b.) random and sequential

c.) primary and secondary

d.) central and peripheral
The resolution for n bit system D/A converter is –

In a PCM system, the number of quantization level are 16 and the maximum signal frequency is 4KHz. The bit transmission rate is-

a.) 64 K bits / sec

b.) 32 bits / sec

c.) 32 K bits /sec

d) 16K bits /sec
Mark out sop in the following-

The reverse saturation Current ICO in a transistor amplifier-

a. )doubles for every 100C rise in temperature

b.) doubles for every 50C rise in temperature

c.) doubles for every 10C rise in temperature

d.) increases linearly with temperature
The given circuit is equivalent to –

a.) b.)

c.) d.)


The interface chip used for data transmission between 8086 and a 16-bit ADC is –

a.) 8529

b.) 8251

c.) 8255

d.) 8253
The output signal amplitudes for1,s and 0,s in an ADM transmission system –

a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed

b. )Fixed but the repetition rate is variable

c.)Variable and the repetition rate is also variable

d.) variable but the repetition rate is fixed
A composite voltage V = 10 sin 100t + 10cos 100t is applied across a series combination of a capacitor of 1/mF and a resistance of 10 kW. The average power dissipated in the resistance is –

a.) 5mW

b.) 3.5mW

c. )4mW

d.) 8mW
Considering a negative feedback system

The closed loop system is stable for

Mark the features of the break away point in the root locus of a closed loop control system with the characteristic equation 1+ KG1 (s) H1 (s) = 0

1. It need not always occur only on the real axis.

2. At this point G1(s) H1(s) = 0

3. At this point

Select the correct answer using codes below.

a.)1, 2 and 3

b.) 1 and 2

c.) 2 and 3

d.) 1 and 3
Which of the following components can be used as a rotating amplifier in a control system?

1. An amplidyne

2. A separatively excited dc generator

3. A self excited dc generator

4. A sychro

select the correct answer using codes below-

a. )3 and 4

b.) 1 and 2

c). 1, 2 and 3

d.) 1, 2, 3 and 4
In the formation of Routh’s array the situation of a row of zeros indicates that the system-

a.) has symmetrically located roots.

b. )is not sensitive to variations in gain

c.) is stable

d.) unstable
A 3-port circulator is shown in the figure.

Which one of the following scattering matrices related to this circulator?








In the given figure a signal flow graph is shown. Consider the statements regarding the signal flow graph-

1. There are three forward paths

2. There are three individual loops

3. There are two non touching loops

of these statements-

a.) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b.) 1 and 2 are correct

c.)2 and 3 are correct

d.) 1 and 3 are correct
Mark out wrong statement.

Modulation is used to-

a. )Reduce the bandwidth used

b). Separate differing transmissions

c.) Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distances

d.) Allow the use of practicable antennas
The best scanning system for tracking if the target has been acquired is-

a.) lobe switching

b.) sequential lobbing

c.) conical scanning

d.) monopulse
The amplification in parametric amplifiers used in microwave communication system is limited by-

a.) type of biasing

b.) cassegranian antenna

c.) pyramidal horn antenna

d. )dipole antenna
Gating signal is applied to the circuit as shown in the given figure, to switch the field effect transistor. When gating signal isOV, the output voltage VO will be-

a. )Zero

b.) Sine wave (2Vp-p)

c.) 2Vdc

d.) I/2V
Hamming codes are used for error detection and correction. If the minimum Hamming distance is m, then the number of errors correctable is-

a. )equal to M

b.) less than M/2

c.) equal to 2 M

d.) greater than M
Mark out a wrong statement for two phase servo motor-

a. )The rotor diameter is small

b.) The rotor resistance is low

c. )The applied voltages are seldom balanced

d.) The torque speed characteristic is linear.
The frequency deviation in phase modulation is-

a.) independent of the modulating signal frequency

b.) inversely proportional to the modulating signal frequency

c.) directly proportional to the modulating signal frequency.

d.) inversely proportional to the square root of the modulating frequency.
A telephone channel has bandwidth B of and . It is connected to a Teletype machine having 32 different symbols. The symbols rate required for errorless transmission is nearly-

a. )1800 symbol/s

b.) 3000 symbols/s

c.) 5000 symbols/s

d.) 6000 symbols/s
Which power amplifiers has maximum efficiency?

a.) Class A

b). Class AB

c.) Class B

d.) Class C

Negative resistance characteristics for its operation is used by –

a.) TWT

b). Klystron

c.) Magnetron

d. )MASERS

Is a non mark able interrupt-

a. )RST 7.5

b). RST 6.5

c.) RST 5.5

d.) TRAP
Instructions in C are of type-

a. )2

b. )3

c.) 4

d.) 6
In C programming character variable can at a time store-

a.) 1 character

b.) 8 characters

c.) 16 characters

d.) 256 characters
To obtain 16 x 8 memory using 16x4 memory. How many IC required-

a.) 16

b.) 2

c.) 4

d.) 8
In active low logic, the logic I state corresponds to-

a.) high voltage level

b) low voltage level.

c.) negative voltage

d.) ground level.
If JK inputs are tied together, the circuit reduces to-

a.) SR FF

b.) D FF

c) T FF

d.) JK FF
For designing half adder are require-

a.) a NOT gate and a OR gate

b). a AND gate and a OR gate

c). two AND gate

d.) a AND gate and a X – OR gate
Portly random and portly cyclic sequential access of memory is in-

a.) magnetic tape

b.) CD ROM

c.) Magnetic Drum

d.) Flopy
A pointer which points the memory address of the current or next instruction is-

a.) Index register

b.) Temp register

c.) Program counter

d.) Stack pointer
For address modification purpose computer uses-

a. )Temp register

b.) Index register

c.) Stack pointer

d.) Program counter
Let,s go for a walk, . The tag question required for this statement is :

a.) Shall we ?

b.) Should we ?

c.) don,t we?

d.) do we ?
He looked very grave

Which of the following words has the closest meaning to the word underlined.

a.) angry

b) serious.

c.) frightened

d.) upset.
Sharma did not work ----- so his master asked him to leave-

a.) proper

b.) properly

c.) rightly

d) straight
Being punctual is necessary in your job. (Substitute the underlined word without changing its meaning) -

a.) attractive

b.) free from worries

c). on time

d.) cheerful
Reema said that she had never ----- a book she liked so much.

a.) held upon

b.) saw into

c.) come across

d.) viewed on
The first bullet train is assembled in –

a. )South Korea

b.) North Korea

c.) Japan

d.) Malaysia
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Communications and Information Technology of Government of India is –

a.) Uma Bharati

b.) Pramod Mahajan

c. )Murli Manohar Joshi

d.) Uma Kashyap
Chairman of the Cricket Board’s Zonal Academics is –

a.) N Venkat Rao

b.) Jag Mohan Dalmia

c.) Chandru Borde

d.) Kapil Dev
Romario matched the career total of retired Zico by-

a.) 830 goals

b.) 835 goals

c.) 834 goals

d.) 831 goals
The best source of Vitamin A is

a.) Lime bean

b.) Carrot

c.)Tomato

d. )Orange
Titan is the name of the moon related to planet-

a. )Uranus

b.) Neptune

c. )Saturn

d. )There is no such moon
Word Environment Day was observed on-

a.) 5 May 99

b.) 15 May 99

c.) 5 June 99

d. )5 July 99
Who wrote ‘Mudrarakshasa”?

a. )Kautilya

b.) Visakhadatta

c.) Kalhana

d.) Kalidas
Where were the first Asian Games held?

a.) New Delhi

b). Teheran

c.) Tokyo

d.) Bangkok
Tagore,s Gitanjali is-

a. )A collection of poems

b. )A collection of short stories

c. )A collection of dramas

d.) A novel
In which year did Mahatma Gandhi launched it first non cooperation movement-

a. )1917

b.) 1918

c.) 1919

d.) 1920
In how many years is Khumbh Mela held?

a. )3

b). 5

c.) 8

d.) 10

e.) 12
Panchayat polls held in Jammu and Kashmir after the gap of-

a.) 40 years

b.) 20 years

c.) 33 years

d.) 23 years
The hardest part in a tooth is-

a.) Dental tubule

b.) Dentine

c.) Enamel

d.) Pulp
What is ,Pimpri, famous for?

a. )Chemicals factory

b.) Fertilizer factory

c.) Antibiotics factory

d.) Cement factory

e.) None of these.

Test Paper - X

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the

resistance of -

a) Each of them increases

b) Each of them decreases

c) Copper increases and germanium decreases

d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -

a) VTVM

b) Cathode ray oscilloscope

c) Moving iron voltmeter

d) Digital multimeter
When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –

a) Both will have equal value of resistivity

b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity

c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon

d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –

a) s = 0; s = -6

b) s = 0; s = -3

c) s = 0; s = -1

d) s = -3; s = -4

5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –

a) drop back to acceptor impurity states

b) drop to donor impurity states

c) Virtually leave the crystal

d) recombine with the electrons

The location of lighting arrestor is –

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b

Telemetering is a method of –

a) Counting pulses sent over long distances

b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another

c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance

d) None

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is

100 ohms then the value of DR will be –

a) 2W

b) 3W

c) 4W

d) 1W

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –

a) Becomes zero

b) Abruptly decreases

c) Abruptly increases

d) Remains constant

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –

a) Thermocouple

b) Piezoelectric pick up

c) Photo-Voltaic cell

d) LCD

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base

b) Common collector

c) Common emitter

d) Emitter follower

In a JFET gates are always –

a) forward biased

b) reverse biased

c) unbiased

d) none

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –

a) insulated gate

b) electrons

c) channel

d) P-N junction
An SCR conducts appreciable current when –

a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode

b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode

c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode

d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -

a) An indirect band gap semiconductor

b) A direct band gap semiconductor

c) A wide band gap semiconductor

d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –

a) 111V

b) 100V

c) 90.09V

d) 70.7V
When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –

a) 5W

b) 10 W

c) 15 W

d) 20 W
19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be –


Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –

a) Z11 = Z22

b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22

c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21

d) Z12 = Z21
When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is –

c) 3W

d) 4W
The value of G12 or for the circuit shown in the fig. is –

The two port network of the fig. shown has open circuit impedance parameters given by matrix –


In the circuit shown, the switch closes at t = 0. The voltage across 4mF capacitor in ideal condition changes to –

a) 0

b) 16V

c) 15V

d) 24V


While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –

a) replaced by opens

b) replaced by ,shorts,

c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources

d) converted into equivalent voltage sources
Maxwell,s loop current method of solving electrical networks –

a) uses branch currents

b) utilizes kirchhoff,s voltage law

c) is confined to single-loop circuits

d) is a network reduction method
A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be

a)(30 + j40 ) ohms

b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms

c)(50 + j40 ) ohms

d)(50 – j40 ) ohms
For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-

a) Elliptically polarized

b) Linearly polarized

c) Right circularly polarized

d) Left circularly polarized
A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-

a) Only

b) With a reflector

c) With one or more directors

d) With a reflector and one or more directors
The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –

a) 3

b) 6

c) 2

d) 1
The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as-

Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -

a) 72 W

b) 144W

c) 288 W

d) 216W
When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -

a)100%

b)150 %

c)50%

d)0%
On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -

a) During morning hours

b) Around mid-day

c) During nights

d) In the afternoon
TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -

a) System B

b) System I

c) System M

d) System X
For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –

a) 1k ohm/volt can be used

b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used

c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used

d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used
In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –

a) Electrical conduction

b) Electrical – capacitive

c) Absorption of radiation

d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity


The flow rate of elctrically conducting liquid without any suspended practicle cannot be measured by –

a) turbine flow meters

b) electromagnetic flow meters

c) ultrasonic flow meters

d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters


The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –

a) an incremental encoder

b) an abosolute encoder

c) LVDT

d) a strain gauge


When variable reluctance type techometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–

a) 4800 rpm

b) 5400 rpm

c) 6000 rpm

d) 7200 rpm.
41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –

a) 1.732 V

b) 1.0 V

c) 0.7746 V

d) 0.5V
One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-

a) strain gauge

b) pitot tube

c) Bourden tube

d) Rotameter
It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –

a) chromel - constantan

b) Iron - constantan

c) chromel - alumel

d) platinum- rhodium
In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-

a) f

b) 2 f

c) f/2

d) 3 f
Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit

a) Type A chopper

b) Type B chopper

c) Type C chopper

d) Type D chopper
Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-

a) peak point

b) valley point

c) any point between peak and valley

d) after the valley point

Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-

a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR

b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR

c) B may operate as a transistor

d) none of the above

In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-

a) zero

b) source voltage

c) source voltage minus the inductance drop

d) average value of the conducting phase voltages

Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-

a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation

b) step up CC requires no forced commutation

c) load commutated CC works on line commutation

d) none of the above

In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-

a)

b)

c)

d)
In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-

a) Large voltage gain

b) Low output impedance

c) Large isolation between the input and the output

d) None of the above
Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-

a) it can withstand high temperature

b) ensures low PIV of the diodes

c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter

d) reduces ripple content
An amplifier of class A is that in which -

a) Base is biased to cut – off

b) Ic flows most of the time

c) Ie flows all the time

d) Vc often raises to Vcc
A transistor is in active region when-

a) IB = bIC

b) IC=bIB

c) IC=IE

d) IC=IB
For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-

a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch

b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch

c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch

d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch
. A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-

a) 100 W

b) 99.01 W

c) 5m W

d) 101kW
An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -

a) 110 MHz

b) 112 Hz

c) 114 MHz

d) 120 MHz
In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-

a) OV

b) VCC – IBRB

c) Equal to VCC

d) None of the above
See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –

a) Only red will glow

b) Only green will glow

c) Both red and green will glow

d) Neither red nor green will glow
A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –

a) 0.1A

b) 0.5A

c) 1.0A

d) 10.0A
A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –

a) storage time

b) turn – off time

c) turn – on time

d) delay time
. The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –

a) (A + B)C + DE

b) AB + C(D + E)

c) (A + B)C + D + E

d) (AB + C) . DE
Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –

a) solid iron motor

b) squirrel cage rotor

c) drag cup rotor

d) both b and c
Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –

a) higher bandwidth

b) higher output

c) higher frequency

d) higher gain
The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –

a) addition

b) subtraction

c) both addition and subtraction

d) multiplication
The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –

A lag compensator is basically a –

a) high pass filter

b) band pass filter

c) low pass filter

d) band elimination filter
Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-



The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is

Mark the correct statement regarding this system

1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4

2. The system type one.

3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Codes

a) 1,2 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3


If the rotor’s resistance and reactance are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-

In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is-

Transfer function can be approximated by the system-

The transfer function of an amplifier is given by



The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-

a) 5850 kHz

b) 585 kHz

c) 5850 Hz

d) 585 Hz
An open loop transfer function is given by

Its – loci will be-


. The output signals amplitudes for 1,s and 0,s in an ADM transmission systems are –

a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed

b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable

c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable

d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed
Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –

a) Because of atmospheric attenuation

b) Because of Output tube power limitations

c) Because of the earth,s curvature

d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive
. The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-

a) line amplifier

b) equalizing amplifiers

c) compradors

d) repeaters.
Diversity reception in used to-

a) increase receiver sensitivity

b) improve receiver selectivity

c) overcome degrading effect of fading

d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
Mark out transferred electron device in the following-

a) BARITT dived

b) IMPATT dived

c) Gunn divde

d) Step recovery diode
In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -

a) syne

b) video

c) sweep

d) sound
The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-

a) mains transformer

b) vertical output stage

c) horizontal output stage

d) horizontal deflection oscillator
In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses)



. The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –

a) 30 MHz – 300MHz

b) 30 MHz – 3 GHz

c) 3 GHz – 30 GHz

d) 30 GHz – 300 GHz

Iris is used to –

a) Over come power loss

b) Over come bending effect

c) Over come mismatch error

d) Over come twist effect

In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –

a) Majority carriers

b) Minority carriers

c) Majority and minority carriers

d) None

. Which antennas are used in microwave communication –

a) long wave antennas

b) Rhombic antennas

c) Parabolaidal antennas

d) All of above

Among translator & time of sight system capacity –

a) Of translator is more

b) Of line of sight is more

c) Having equal capacity

d) No relation such as

No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6


89. In data transfer operation which flag get affected)-

a) 3140 flog.

b) carry flog

c) sign flog.

d) none

In flowchart which figure represents process like subroutine-



.


The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-

a) last in first out

b) first in first out

c) random in random out

d) none


. While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-

a) each instruction

b) after interval of two instruction

c) after a subroutine

d) at the end of program.



93. In which error check technique of data communication 2,s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-

a) Even parity

b) odd parity

c) check scans

d) cyclic redundancy


. Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-

a) is most important

b) is used first

c) is fastest

d) operators on largest number

. (375)10 = (----)8

a) 550

b) 557

c) 567

d) 577
To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16
A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-

a) 10001

b) 01110

c)00111

d) 11100
Is the Universal logic gate-

a) AND

b) OR

c) NAND

d) X-OR
A monostable state in multivibrator means-

a) which returns itself to its single stable state

b) the state used only once in circuit

c) the state of circuit can not get changed

d) the state of circuit always changing
For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -

a) T FF

b) SR FF

c) D FF

d) JKFF
His handwriting was not ----- so I could not read his note –

a) attractive

b) eligible

c) clear

d) legible
They started to ----- people into the theatre only at six -

a) enter

b) admit

c) follow

d) accept
I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).

a) ending

b) ordinary

c) durable

d) cheap
Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ,evident,-

a) doubtful

b) unimportant

c) disagreed

d) understood
I expressed by disagreement ------ him on that issue-

a) between

b) with

c) about

d) for
‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -

a) India

b) Cuba

c) Brazil

d) USA
Palk strait separates-

a) India and Srilanka

b) India and Burma

c) Britain and France

d) Malaysia and Sumatra
The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-

a) 1

b) 5

c) 2

d) 10
Tides in the sea are caused by-

a) Effect of sun

b) Effect of moon

c) combined effect of moon and sun

d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
. The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is

a) 140

b) 200

c) 150

d) 100
Aswan Dam is located in-

a) Egypt

b) Libya

c) Sudan

d) Iran
Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -

a) Rajasthan

b) Madhya Pradesh

c)Uttar Pradesh

d) Maharashtra
Dry ice is-

a) Frozen carbon monoxide

b) Frozen carbon dioxide

c) Frozen ammonia

d) None of these
East flower river of India is -

a) Cauvery

b) sone

c) Narmada

d) Tapti
The total length of the great wall of China is –

a) 1,400 miles

b) 1,500 miles

c) 1,300 miles

d) 1,400 miles
Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-

a) beriberi

b) night blindness

c) dermatitis

d) Scurvy
Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of –

a) 11 months

b) 2 years

c) 18 months

d) 15 months
Indian local time is based on-

a) 800 E longitude

b) E longitude

c) 1100 E longitude

d) 250 E longitude
The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on –

a) 9th April 2002

b) 10th April 2002

c) 8th April 2002

d) 11th April 2002

Which one is a good preservative of food?

a) Spirit

b) Formaldehyde

c) Sugar

d) None of the above

BSNL PAPER ON 5TH JULY,2008

1.Which Sentence is correct:
a.French is known by me.
b.French live in France.
c.France is an European country.
d.Nepolean was a French king.
Ans.b

2.Antonymous of " OBSOLETE":
a.Current b. old c. relative d. neutral
ans.a

3.I am agree _ the project.
a. to b. on c. with d. at
ans.a

4."MY LIFE MY COUNTRY" author,s name:
a.L.K. Advani
b.Manmohan Singh
c.Soniya Gandhi
d.Apj Abul Kalam
ans.a

5.India,s first Grandmaster lady:
a.koneru hampi
b.s. subrahamanyam
c.c.k. nayadu
d.kiran gosvami
ans.a

6.J.L. Bayard invented:
a.radio b. telephone c. telegraph d. television
ans.d

7.Simla agreement was done between India and _
a. china b. Nepal c. Pakistan d. Bhutan
ans.c

8. Myanmar is not share its boundary with
a. assam b. mizoram c. Manipur d. nagaland .
Ans.a

9. First "ROUND TABLE CONFRESS" between India & Britain was in:
a. Calcutta b. Delhi c. London d.Peris
ans.c

10. Iron man of India is :
a. Lala lajpat rai
b . subhash Chandra bose
c. sardar vallabhai patel
d . pandit jawahar lal nehru
ans.c

11.WORLD TELECOMMUNICATION DAY is on:
a. may 17 b. july 21 c. june 26 d. augast 22
Ans.a

12.Greenhouse Effect is caused by:
a. Carban di oxide b. sulphar di oxidem c. Carban mono oxide d. oxyzen
ans.a

13.Oldest IIT is:
a.IIT, Bombay b. IIT, Guwahati c. IIT, delhi d. IIT,Khadakpur
ans.d

14. Kalpana-I satellite is launched basically for:
a.Distance education
b.Telecommunication & broadcasting
c.Metrological purpose
d.Travel & science
ans.c

15. Radio Waves transmission & receiving phenomenon invented by:

16. HYNYANIKA was a type of:

Test Paper - VII

At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-

a.) Inductive

b.) Capacitive

c. )Resistive

d.)None


The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -

a.) 107

b. )105

c. )10-4

d. )10-6

he output of a piezoelectric crystal has-

a. )Low amplitude and low impedance

b. )High amplitude and high impedance

c. )Low amplitude and high impedance

d.)High amplitude and low impedance


The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –

a. )6ms

b. )10ms

c. )15ms

d.) 25ms

The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –

a.) Thinner wire

b.) Longer wire

c.) Shorter wire

d.) Thicker wire

A cavity resonator can be represented by –

a.) An LC circuit

b.) An LCR circuit

c.) A lossy inductor

d.) A lossy capacitor

Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –

a.) Core saturation

b). Hysterisis loss

c.) Flux leakage

d.) Transformer action

Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -

a.) Its capacitance is decreased

b.) Its capacitance is increased

c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected

d. )Capacitor is discharged

For current to flow, a circuit must be –

a.) Isolated

b). Insulated

c.) Complete

d.) Protected

Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –

a.) 10-20 w/m2

b). 10-13 w/m2

c.) 10-6 w/m2

d.) 10-3 w/m2

A FET operates on –

a). Majority carriers only

b). Minority carriers only

c). Positively charged ions only

d.) None

An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –

a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle

b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle

c.) nothing can be said

d.) none

In CRT aquadag carries -

a. )aqueous solution of graphite

b. )sweep voltage

c. )secondary emission electrons

d.) none of the above



From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B

should be -

a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B

b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A

c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B

d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B

When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –

a. )8mA

b. )160 hA

c. )1mA

d. )7.84mA

MOSFET can operate in –

a. )Depletion mode

b. )Enhancement mode

c. )Depletion-only mode

d. )Both a & b


For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –

a. )




d.) None



The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –

a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant

b.) insulate the surface electrically

c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer

d.) all the above

One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –

a.) NPN germanium transistor

b.) NPN silicon transistor

c.) PNP germanium transistor

d. )PNP silicon transistor.



With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –

a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.

b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.

c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.

d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.


For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –

a.) 50 watts

b) 50 watts

c. )1500 watts

d. )15000 watts

The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –

a.) 0.2A

b.) 0.4A

c.) 0.6A

d.) 0.8A


In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-

a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages

b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs

c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully

d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0


The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –









For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –

a. )2, 1, 5

b. )2, 6, 7, 8

c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5

d. )2, 3, 4


Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –

a. )voltage level

b.) impedance level

c.) power level

d.) voltage, power or impedance level

When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –









For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –

a. )Thevenin,s theorem

b.) Maximum power transfer theorem

c.) Millman,s theorem

d.) Superposition theorem

The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –

a. )KVL

b.) KCL

c.) Ohm,s law

d.) Both b and c

When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –







For a lossless line-

1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero

3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite

a. ) 1 & 2

b. )2 & 3

c. ) 2 & 4

d.)3 & 4

When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-

a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square

b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square

c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square

d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square


When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-

a. ) 5.00 kw

b.) 7.69 kw

c.) 8.47 kw

d.) 9.17 kw

The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -

a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen

b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen

c.) Oxygen and water vapour

d. )Nitrogen and water vapour


The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -

a.) 2

b.) 1

c. ) 4/ p

d.) p/4

In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -

a.) Increases with increasing frequency

b.)Decreases with increasing frequency

c. ) Is independent of frequency

d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range


For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-

a.) 3fc

*



When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –

a.) j 0.033

b.)0.8 + j 0.6

c.) 1

d.)2

The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-

a. )High frequencies

b.)Ultra-high frequencies

c. ) Microwave frequencies

d.)Optical frequencies

When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-

a. )100%

b. )150 %

c. )50%

d.) 0%

Reluctances in series are –

a. )Subtractive

b.) Additive

c.) Multiplicative

d.) None.

When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –

a. )X is more sensitive

b.) Y is more sensitive

c. )both are equally sensitive

d.) not possible to determine from the given data.

In the context of ac bridge measurement the term "Wagner Ground" means –

a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.

b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.

c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.

d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.


The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –

a. )cannot handle MHz signals

b.) cannot handle GHz signals

c. )can handle GHz signals

d.) none.


De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –

a. )simplicity

b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors

c. )perfect balance for air capacitors

d.) maximum sensitivity.

A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –

a. )reducing the power dissipation.

b. )reducing the switching time

c. )increasing the value of b

d.) reducing the base current.


The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –

a. )Energy meters

b.) Ammeters

c. )Wattmeter

d. )Voltmeters

A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –

a. )true rms value

b.) dc value

c.) peak value

d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-

a. )thermocouple

b.) rectifier

c.) chopper

d. )transducer


Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?

a. )Ac voltmeter

b. )CRO

c. )Headphones

d.) Vibration galvanometer.

In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –

a.) The power factor

b.) The line current

c.) Both a and b

d.) The line current and increases power factor



In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be

style="height: 48236; left: 16; position: absolute; width: 528; z-index: 2; mso-ignore: vglayout; top: 13795; margin-left: 168px; margin-top: 78px">

self-inductance having resistance

b. )A capacitance

c. )A non-Inductive resistance

d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel

SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –

a. )Electrical connection to external circuit

b.) Physical strength

c. )Isolation

d. )Conducting path

For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-

a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec

b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec

c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec

d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec

In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-

a) 0.955

b. )0.827

c.) 1.654

d. )1.169

In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.

a. )6, 900

b. )3, 450

c. )4, 600

d.) 3, 400


A four quadrant operation requires-

a. )two full converters in series.

b.) two full converters connected back to back.

c.) two full converters connected in parallel.

d.) two semi converters connected back to back

In voltage source inverters-

a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,

b. )Both o and io depend on z,

c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z

d. )both o and do not depend on z

For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-

a. )should alternate on real axis

b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis

c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis

d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.



The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate - cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-

a.) over voltages, over currents.

b. )over currents over voltages.

c. )over currents, noise signals

d. )noise signals, over voltages.

The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-

a.) A resonant circuit is used as load

b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.

c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive

d. )None of the above


The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -

a. ) Parallel connection

b.) Cascode connection

c. ) Darlington connection

d. )Cascade connection


Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -

a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit

b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor

c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit

d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.


In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-

a. ) The majority carriers

b.) The minority carriers

c. ) Nothing can be said

d. )None of the above

Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-

a. )Cannot exceed unity

b. )Is always constant

c. ) Is dependent on input signal

d. )Depends on output impedance

Random-access-memory means –

a. )memory in a random fashion

b. )memory in a zigzag fashion

c. )memory in a circular fashion

d. )memory in a square fashion

BCD code is –

a. )an alphanumeric code

b. )a binary code

c .) the same thing as binary numbers

d. )non-weighed

The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -

a.) 900 and –00

b. )-900 and 900

c. )-1800 and 1800

d. )None of the above

Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –

a. )8 bit

b.) 4 bit

c. )6 bit

d.) 10 bit

A bistable multivibrator is used as a –

a.) Free running multivibrator

b.) Frequency multiplier

c.) Frequency divider

d. )Wave shaper

The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –

a. )900 and -00

b. )–900 and 900

c. )–1800 and 1800

d. )none of the above.
A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –

a. )0 sec

b. )0.56 sec

c. )5.6 sec

d.) infinity.


To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-

a.) Strain Gauge

b.) Load cell

c. )Synchro

d.) Thermistor
The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –

a. )4

b. )4/3

c. )2



Considering control system in the given fig .

For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool

sensitivity will be given by-

a.) 1: (1+GH)

b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1

c. )1 : (1-GH)

d. )1 : (1-GH)-1

The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-

a. )Increase the bandwidth

b.) Prevent noise effects

c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.

d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.

Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-

a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.

b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal

c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.

d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced


Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –

a.) A dc power supply and regulator

b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission

c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment

d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment

In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-

a.) At the transmitter

b.) In the channel

c.) In the information source

d.) At the destination

The given circuit is a –

a.) Monostable multivibrator

b.) Frequency division circuit

c.) Miller sweeps circuit

d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit

In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-

a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.

b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900

c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800

d.) None of above.

Directional coupler is a function of-

a.) Two port wave-guide

b.) Four port wove guide

c. )Single port wave-guide

d.) Size port wave-guide.

Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –

a.) It increases power of signal

b.) To match any load with generator

c. )To get phase shifted o/p

d.) To differentiate load & generator



In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -

a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary

b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction

c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary

d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary



Crystal diode works on principle of –

a. )Negative resistance

b. )Positive resistance

c. )Square low

d.) Linear impedance

In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –

a. )Domain mode

b. )Delayed domain mode

c. )Quenched domain mode

d. )LSA mode

In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-

a. )eR

b. )ee

c. )el

d. )eR , ee, el

The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –

a.) Their distance from transmitter is long

b.) Wave power is weak

c. )Improper polarization of wave

d.) Frequency of waves



8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-

a. )2

b.) 3

c.) 4

d. ) None

No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-

a.) 32

b.) 64

c. ) 128

d.) 256


Is two byte instruction-

a.) MOV A, B

b.) ANA B

c.) MV I B, 92 H

d.) LHLD 2050 H


Banch instructions-

a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.

b. )only sets flogs according to results.

c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting

d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.



What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-

Loop DCX B 6

MOV A, C, 4

ORA B 4

JNZ Loop 10

system clock freg. = 2 MHz.

a. ) 10 m s

b.)12 m s

c.) 14 m s

d. )16 m s

After execution of pop statement-

a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2

b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2

c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1

d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1



Labels are used as an alternative for-

a.) Data

b.) Register name

c.) Memory address

d) Stack pointer

Microprogramming is a technique-

a) For programming the microprocessor

b.) For writing small programs efficiently

c. )For programming the control steps of computer

d.) For programming o/p / i/p


00110010 – 01000101 =?

a.) 00010011

b. )11101101

c. )11100011

d. )11100100

When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-

a.) Address of the array

b. )Values of elements of array

c.) Number of elements of array

d. )Address of the first element of the array

A write cycle time means-

a.) Minimum length of write pulse

b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end

c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation

d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends


If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-

a.) NOT

b.) AND

c.) OR

d. )NAND.

Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –





Which logic family is most faster-

a.) ECL

b.) DCTL

c.) RTL

d) TTL

For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-

a.) both i/p must be positive

b.) both i/p must be negative

c.) any one of i/p must be positive

d.) undefined condition

Supercilious is –

a. )Harighty

b.) High brow

c.) Angry

d.) Inane.

Give the synonym of ,moribund,-

a.) Undertaking

b.) Burial

c.) Leather bound

d.) Dying

The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?

a.) Duration

b.) Time

c) Direction

d.) Position

According to the writer what influences our dreams-

a. )inner censorships

b.) the stories

c. )the tales

d) none.

Vaunted is –

a.) Unvanquished

b.) Fell.

c.)Belittled

d.) Exacting.


The sun rays falls vertically on -

a.) Tropics

b.) Doldrums

c.) Poles

d.) Equator

Trimurti is associated with -

a.) Ellora

b.) Ajanta

c.) Khajuraho

d.) Elephant caves

n which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?

a.) 1930

b.) 1929

c.) 1928

d.) 1942

Director of CBI-

a.) D.C Sharma

b.) A. M Shrivastava

c.) P.C Sharma

d.) P.C Dole

Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -

a.) P. gopichand

b.) P. T Usha

c.) Sachin Tendulkar

d.) Gurpreet Singh

During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?

a.) Id-Ul-Fitr

b) Id-ul-Zuha

c. )Milad-un-Nabi

d.) Any time

Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!

a.) 79 and 10

b.) 80 and 29

c. )95 and 14

d.) None can be produced synthetically


Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -

a.) 30 km

b. ) 32 km

c.) 34 km

d.) 35 km

Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -

a.) Bimal Jalan

b.) C. Ranga Rajan

c. )Rana Malhotra

d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -

a )Pope John Paul II

b.) Pope John Paul I

c.) Pope John Paul III

d. )Pope John Paul V

Uranium is found in the state of -

a.) Orissa

b.) A. P

c.) Karnataka

d. )Bihar


Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-

a. )Karachi

b.) Peshawar

c. )Ellipse

d.) Paraboloid