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Essar Placement Paper : Essar Placement Paper Durgapur,B.C.Roy Engineering College 25 January 2012

ESSAR GROUP started their campus drive process by given a big presentation that takes 1 hour 45 mints almost. In this presentation they clear all our doubt about all the process and company profile.

Now I will share my experience in ESSAR GROUP .
Eligibility:-

60% aggregate marks throughout (10th.10+2, graduation)
Selection Process:-

Selection process was based on three round

A. Written Test.

B. GD and Group PI.

C. Technical and HR interview.


(A) Online Written Test:-

In this online written Test there was 4 Section with 170 questions that u need to complete only 120 mints. Quantitative aptitude, Reasoning , English ,and Technical.

It is the most important round of the selection process that we know. The first three sections not too much tough if anybody prepare from R. S. Agarwal and GRE paper solve by Barron 12th edition. But one thing that needs to be follow all time or you can say most tough that is The time. In all the section have individual time frame. So it’s necessary to follow up the time.


For the technical section, they asked basic question from the whole instrumentation. For this section u must prepared well.
They asked from all the instrumentation related subject and some basic Electrical and Electronics question. So to qualify this round you must be clear the basic fundamental of under mention topic -
some of questions like....

(1) About Electronics and Electrical Measurement Instrument (specification, Use, Range, material.).

(2) Range of any specific type thermocouple, RTD, also some basic problem.

(3) Digital Instrumentation like PLC, SCADA, DCS etc.

(4) Digital Electronics (flip-flop, Counter, Register) and basic of Electronics (Diode, Transistor etc. )

(5) Sensor and Transducers & their principles use.

(6) Op-amp based problem and question.

(7) Process Parameter like Temperature, Pressure, Level, Flow is very important part .Range of the instrumentation, where and why use.
I completed my written test at 6:15 PM, actually it started late. Then after 2 hours they announced the written test result and I was selected for GD Round. The GD round started about 10 PM.

Group Discussion:-



Our topic in GD was “What is best for Power generation for Future India thermal, nuclear or Hydro power plant? “


In our group no was eliminated. It was a superb experience, we all seven members was from same college. And we got the selection result of GD in next day after Noon. Then again I went for Personal Interview on 13th April but for some problem interview was postponed and I went again 14th April for my interview at 8:15 AM.Another interesting thing is waiting for me here that I got to know after reaching the spot that my interview will take over phone.At 9:35 AM on 14th April’2011, my interview was started, initially I was tensed because it was my first interview over phone but by the help of HR I get some confident and I carried on the interview.

Personal Interview:-
There were two sections in personal interview.
(i) Technical (More Important).
(ii) HR.

(i) In technical, they asked me about myself first . the Conversation of telephonic interview is below. In the other side of telephone three members was as an Interviewer.

Interviewer: - Good morning,

Me:- Good Morning Sir,

Interviewer: - what about you ?

Me:- I answered also I mention in this parts my favorite subject (Process parameter Measurement), about my Industrial training and about my final year project.

Interviewer:- Say something about Electromagnetic Flow Meter.

Me:- Answered.

Interviewer:- Electromagnetic Flow Meter is Bidirectional or unidirectional and why?

Me – In first Attempt I done Mistake but when I describe it became correct and the appreciate.

Interviewer: - How many types Ultrasonic flow meter is use in industry and explain any one?

Me:- it was tough to explain in over phone but I tried my best cause there have no scope to writing the equation , although I explained all the Equation over phone slowly.

Interviewer: - what u knows about pressure bellows?

Me:- I am not prepared well in this question so I said sir I am not getting the question actually. Then Sir said gives some examples of pressure bellows and I answered.

Interviewer:- Temperature range of k type thermocouple and Combination metal .

Me; - I answered well.

Interviewer: - what is calibration? How can we get to know the instrument is not calibrated and how we calibrate it?

Me:- I was explained the Answered but I felt that they were not satisfied by my answered. Then I again explain slowly with mentioning some static and dynamic Characteristics of instrument.

Interviewer: - what is error and what is Parallax error? Explain.

Me:- I explained this question very confidently because it was too much easy. Ha Ha …



Then very few question asked by them which is related with HR and I answered all the question with my ability. They asked like why do u want to join Essar, Family background etc (very basic).

For this HR part I will suggest you please give the answered correctly with confident and honesty and positive thinking.



My interview was over but I was very scared about my interview because I don’t see the person who took my interview and also they were satisfied by my answered or not .But I was in positive always because my answered interview satisfied me.

After 20-25 days they send the result to our college TPO. & I was selected. I was too much happy that day although this was my 2nd JOB from college.

In 18th July’2011 I joined in ESSAR GROUP. Now I am a part of this big MNC organization. I am in Essar Power Limited.

I think my experience may be helping you in your future selection drive for ESSAR GROUP and other Core company also.

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Placement Paper KIIT UNIVERSITY BHUBANESWAR 26 January 2012

Latest Essar Placement Paper - I:-



1.SQRT (156.25) * SQRT (14.25) = 35 * X what is the value of X? X = 1.25

2. A + 8450 ÷ 650 = 13 + A. What is the value of A? A = 0

3. The sum of a number whose ? th is 45. What is the number?

Ans: None
4. The sum of a 2 digit number is equal to the difference between them. Find how many such numbers are possible?

Ans: 10
5. The sum of a 2 digit number is equal to twice the difference between them. Find how many such numbers are possible?

6. 1000.01 – 100.01 – 10.01 = X. what is X? X = 889.99

7. 0.25% of 10 – 10% of 0.25 = 25% of 100 – 100% of X. What is X? X = 25
8. One – fifth of two – third of a number is equal to 24. What is the number?
9. 100$8 – 2$39 = $319. What is $? $ = None of these
10. Ajith and Ajay’s age are in the ratio of 3:5. Two years hence, their age are in the ratio 7:11. What is Ajith’s present age? Ajith’s age = 12.
11. The length of a train is 200m and it crosses a platform of 75m in 15sec. Another train with a length of 180m which is on the opposite direction approaches it. How long it will take to cross the other?
12. (X) – Square, % - Square root, # - Divide, * - Multiply, @ - addition and & - Subtraction. Find the value of (4)#4%4*4@4
13. Solve 30 – 0.05 *20 +10÷ 5 =?
14. A circle of diameter 28 cm. If there is a rectangle of length 56 cm. What is the value of breadth whose areas are equal? Breadth = 44cm
15. A wheel rotates 18 revolutions in 4.5 sec. What are the revolutions of the wheel per minute? Revolutions = 240
16. Solve: 20% of 60%of a number is equal to 40% of 200. What is the number?
17. 252 x 253 =? 252 + 3
18. Series: 5 5 7.5 15 37.5 112.5 339.75 X
19. Trisha’s monthly salary is 25% more than Krishna’s salary but 25% less than Payal’s salary. Krishna’s annual income is Rs. 1, 20, 000. What is the monthly income of Payal?
20. There is a seven consecutive odd numbers. What is the number greater than 6 and it is smaller than 6?
21. Work done is Zero for which process? Ans: Constant Volume

22. Which cycle has high efficiency? Ans: Otto Cycle
23. The power of 2 –stroke engine varies from 4 – stroke engine by______.
Ans: Twice
24. Sudden reduction in barometer leads to ______.
Ans: Storm
25. Composition of Stainless steel ____.
Ans: Chromium, Nickel …
26. Gears are produced in mass production by ______.
Ans: Hobbing
27. Pick out the wrong statements:
a) The good fuel should have high calorific value
b) Ease in storing
c) High ignition point
d) Low smoke and gases
Ans: (C)
28. Composition of Gun metal _____
29. Gears are commonly called with _______
Ans: Pitch Circle Diameter
30. A good fuel should have ________ ignition point.
Ans: Low

Essar Quantitative Aptitude - I

Question 1. (Single Selection)

The sum of the squares of three consecutive natural numbers is 2030, then the middle number is:

1. 24

2. 26

3. 25

4. 27

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

A student got thrice as many marks in Arithmetic as in English. If the total of his marks in the two subjects is 128, how many marks did he get in English?

1. 32

2. 64

3. 96

4. 16

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720/-, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball in rupees is:

1. 45

2. 50

3. 55

4. 60

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

? ÷ √ 0.81 = 300

1. 2700

2. 270

3. 33.33

4. 540

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The difference between a number and its four-fifth is 25. What is the number?

1. 75

2. 100

3. 125

4. 150

5. None of these

Question 6. (Single Selection)

The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on certain sum of money for two years at 4% per anum is Rs. 1/-. The sum in Rs. is:

1. 625

2. 630

3. 640

4. 650

5. None of these

Question 7. (Single Selection)

A batsman scored 150 runs which included 5 boundaries, 2 sixes and other singles. What percentage of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

1. 78.66

2. 75.66

3. 80.66

4. 82.66

5. None of these

Question 8. (Single Selection)

How many of the following numbers are divisible by 3 and not by 9?

2133, 2343, 3474, 4131, 5286, 5340

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 6

5. None of these

Question 9. (Single Selection)

Which of the following number will be wrong in the number series?

7 13 22 31 49 67 88

1. 13

2. 21

3. 31

4. 49

5. 67

Question 10. (Single Selection)

Two radios and one calculator can cost Rs.3300, while two calculators and one radio cost Rs.5400. What is the price of a radio?

1. Rs. 2500

2. Rs. 700

3. Rs. 400

4. Rs. 1100

5. None of these

Question 11. (Single Selection)

The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5 p.c.p.a is Rs.202.50 in one year. How much will the additional interest be in one year on the same deposit at 5 p.c.p.a?

1. 20.25

2. 22.50

3. 225

4. 427.5

5. None of these

Question 12. (Single Selection)

An alloy is to contain copper and zinc in the ratio 9 : 5. How much zinc is required to be melted with 24 kg of copper?

1. 43.00

2. 43.20

3. 44.00

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 13. (Single Selection)

(16 X 16 – 56) ÷ [(13 X 12) - (8 X 7)] = ?

1. 4

2. 20

3. 200

4. 100

5. None of these

Question 14. (Single Selection)

A man in a train notices that he can count 20 electric poles in one minute. If the poles are 40 meters apart, what is the speed of the train in Km/Hr?

1. 60

2. 45

3. 48

4. 54

5. None of these

Question 15. (Single Selection)

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank independently in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes were used together, how long would it take to fill the tank?

1. 12 min

2. 15 min

3. 25 min

4. 50 min

5. None of these

Question 16. (Single Selection)

If 24 men do a work in 40 days, in how many days will 30 men do it?

1. 30

2. 28

3. 26

4. 34

5. None of these

Question 17. (Single Selection)

? X 15 = 65% of 300

1. 195

2. 130

3. 2925

4. 13

5. None of these

Question 18. (Single Selection)

The average age of 28 employees is 23 years. If the manager’s age is also included, the average age increases by one year. What is the manager’s age in years?

1. 28

2. 51

3. 52

4. 53

5. None of these

Question 19. (Single Selection)

The difference between squares of two consecutive even numbers is always divisible by:

1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 2

5. None of these

Question 20. (Single Selection)

Ashutosh purchased a motor cycle at (13/15)th of its selling price and sold it at 12% more than its selling price. Ashutosh’s net gain is:

1. 20%

2. 29.23%

3. 30.67%

4. 38.13%

5. None of these

Question 21. (Single Selection)

Which number should replace both the question marks in ? ÷ 32 = 392 ÷ ?

1. 112

2. 32

3. 16

4. 196

5. None of these

Question 22. (Single Selection)

If 3690 ÷ 20.5 = 180; 36.90 ÷ 2.05 = ?

1. 0.18

2. 1.8

3. 18

4. 1800

5. None of these

Question 23. (Single Selection)

A mother is three times as old as her son. After 15 years she will be twice as old as her son. What is the present age of the mother in years?

1. 40

2. 50

3. 60

4. 70

5. None of these

Question 24. (Single Selection)

‘A’ started business investing Rs.6000/-. Three months later ‘B’ joined him investing Rs.4000/-. If they make a profit of Rs.5100/- at the end of the year, how much should be ‘B’s’ share?

1. Rs. 1700

2. Rs. 3400

3. Rs. 1300

4. Rs. 1732.75

5. None of these

Question 25. (Single Selection)

20 transistors go in a box and two dozen boxes are packed in a carton. How many cartons will be needed to pack 1920 transistors?

1. 96

2. 12

3. 8

4. 4

5. None of these

21 of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in Mathematics and Accounts in an examination

Subjects Marks Interval (Marks out of 50)

41-50 31-40 21-30 11-20 1-10

Mathematics 23 09 48 12 08

Accounts 04 21 60 10 05

Approximate number of students in marks interval for both the subjects

13 15 54 11 7

If it is known that at least 28% marks are required for the students to be eligible for a seminar on

Accounts. The numbers of Accounts students who can give the seminar are:

1. 85

2. 80

3. 95

4. 91

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The approximate number of students securing less than 41 marks in both the subjects is

1. 91

2. 85

3. 93

4. 87

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

What is the difference between the number of students getting at least 21 marks in Accounts over those getting at least 21 marks in Mathematics approximately?

1. 19

2. 12

3. 7

4. 5

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

What is the difference between the number of students passed with at least 31 marks both in Accounts and Mathematics?

1. 9

2. 19

3. 12

4. 7

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

If at least 31 marks in Mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in Mathematics, how many students would be eligible to pursue higher studies in Mathematics?

1. 60

2. 32

3. 57

4. 68

5. None of these

Expenditure of a company in Lac Rupees per annum over the given years Salary Fuel &Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes

1998 150 100 5 25 85

1999 175 150 5 35 115

2000 200 175 10 45 75

2001 225 275 10 50 125

2002 250 400 20 45 100

TOTA

L 1000 1000 50 200 500

What is the percentage of the total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period in

relation to the salary paid during the given period?

1. 20%

2. 4%

3. 3%

4. 2%

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The total expenditure of the company for all items of expenditure for the year 2002 is what percent of the year 2000?

1. 61

2. 18

3. 69

4. 38

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The total expenditure for all the items of expenditure in the year 1998 to the year 2002 is approximately:

1. 59%

2. 54%

3. 458%

4. 41%

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

What is the average amount of interest per year, which the company had to pay during these years?

1. 50

2. 35

3. 40

4. 45

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes and the total expenditure on fuel and transport respectively for all the years is approximately:

1. 3 : 4

2. 1 : 2

3. 2 : 3

4. 1 : 4

5. None of these

Question 1. (Single Selection)

What was the % decrease in foreign exchange reserves in 1998-1999 over 1996-1997?

1. 11.28

2. 14.28

3. 11.28

4. 17.28

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review are:

1. 325

2. 300

3. 314

4. 250

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The foreign exchange reserves of how many years is above the average foreign exchange reserves of the given period?

1. 5

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

The foreign exchange reserves in 1996-1997 was approximately how many times that of the year 1992-1993?

1. 1.21

2. 1.24

3. 1.27

4. 1.30

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

What was the approximate % increase in foreign exchange reserves in 1997-1998 over 1995-1996?

1. 33

2. 36

3. 39

4. 30

5. None of these

Question 1. (Single Selection)

STATE is related to ESTATE in the same way as TUMBLE is related to ________?

1. Fumble

2. Crumble

3. Stumble

4. Mumble

5. Humble

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If the following alphabet were written in the reverse order, which will be the fifth letter to the right of the eleventh letter from the left?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

1. J

2. K

3. L

4. P

5. U

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Four of the following five English words are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. C-G

2. T-X

3. E-I

4. J-N

5. M-Q

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the first and the third letters in the word CONTRIBUTION were interchanged, also the second and fourth letters, the fifth and seventh and so on, which letter would be eighth, counting from your left?

1. I

2. B

3. U

4. R

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

If A ^ B means “A is the father of B” A < B means “A is the sister of B”, A > B means “A is the brother of B”, then how is P related to R in the following codified relationship?

R < S ^ P > T

1. Aunt

2. Cousin

3. Niece

4. Nephew

5. None of these

Question 6. (Single Selection)

Given that “Mountain is greater than or equal to Tree”, Tree is smaller than Ocean”, and “Ocean is not greater than River”, which of the following statements can be definitely TRUE?

1. Mountain is either greater than or equal to River

2. River is either smaller than or equal to Tree

3. River is greater than Tree

4. Mountain is either greater than or equal to Ocean

5. None of these

Question 7. (Single Selection)

In a certain code ASHOK is written as LMIQB, how will MEDHA be written in that code?

1. BFCDN

2. BFECN

3. BFEFN

4. BIECN

5. None of these

Question 8. (Single Selection)

“t” is in ‘Often’ in the same way as “h” is in ________?

1. Inhibit

2. House

3. Enhance

4. Hope

5. Hour

Question 9. (Single Selection)

In a certain code LARGEST is written as SRDFQZK. How would RATION be written in the code?

1. MNHSAQ

2. MNISZQ

3. MNHDZQ

4. MNHSZQ

5. None of these

Question 10. (Single Selection)

If Y denotes ÷, Q denotes x, and T denotes +, then 15Q13Y3T6 = ?

1. 65

2. 591

3. 71

4. 946

5. None of these

Question 11. (Single Selection)

In a certain game, if a person steps on the particular square he gets one rupee and every time he misses the particular square he has to pay one rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of Rs.

40. How many times did he step on the particular square?

1. 75

2. 65

3. 55

4. 60

5. 70

Analytical Reasoning - II

Description:

These questions are based on the following series of elements (English letters, numerals and symbols).

A B 8 @ E 2 $ + 5 J 3 6 M * % P 7 9 S 4 U ? 1 X { }

Time Limit: 3 min 20 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

If the first two elements interchange their positions, the third and the fourth elements interchange their

positions, and so on and so forth, which of the following triplet will show the exact sequence of the

three elements in the new arrangement?

1. X 1 {

2. 5 6 3

3. P M %

4. * P M

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If this series is of English alphabet, in which some letters are represented by numerals or symbols,

which letter is represented by the element which is exactly midway between11th element from the left and the 10th element from the right?

1. L

2. Q

3. O

4. N

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

How many such letters are there in the above series, each of which is immediately preceded by a

numeral and immediately followed by a symbol?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If numbers from 1 to 9, in the serial order, expresses the English letters that appear in the above series, what will be the sum of all the numerals, the old and the new together?

1. 90

2. 45

3. 36

4. 18

5. None of these

Analytical Reasoning - III

Description:

In the following questions the symbols <, >, &, £ and ? are used with the following meaning:

A > B means A is smaller than B

A < B means A is greater than B

A & B means A is either greater than or equal to B

A £ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B

A ? B means A is equal to B

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below them is/ are definitely true?

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statement

J & I, C > O, I < O

Conclusions

I. C > J

II. C > I

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement

J > S, S ? Z, Z > W

Conclusions

I. Z ? J

II. W > J

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement

Y £ W, W ? X, X & U

Conclusions

I. Y > X

II. Y ? X

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement

C < L, Z > J, L & Z

Conclusions

I. L > J

II. C < J

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement

E & C, L < Z, C > Z

Conclusions

I. E < Z

II. L < C

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Analytical Reasoning - IV

Description:

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and –

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone OR in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

CAUTION: Do NOT mark your answer unless you consider both the statements carefully.

If “6 5 9” stands for “we are healthy”, which digit stands for ,healthy,?

I. “5 7” stands for “healthy habits”.

II. “693” stands for “we are busy”.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Who among A, B, C, D and E is the tallest?

I. E is taller than three of them but not as tall as A.

II. B is taller than D and C; but not tall as A.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

In a seven-storey building with one flat on each storey, who among A, B, C, D, E, & F occupies the middlemost flat?

I. A and D occupy the flats on the two extremes storeys and they have C and E as their immediate neighbors.

II. The flat occupied by B is not in the middle.

.Question 4. (Single Selection)

Which code stands for “Brazil” in a code language in which “Mob” stands for “Argentina.”?

I. “Dip Mob Nod” denotes “Brazil defeated Argentina”, in that code.

II. “Italy defeated Argentina” is denoted by “ Sip Dip Mob” in that code.

Question 5. (Single Selection)

What is the area of a circular playground that has a wire fencing around it?

I. The cost of fencing was Rs. 15, 626 at the rate of Rs. 35 per Kg.

II. The fencing is 63 meters away from the center of the playground.

Read the following information and answer the questions.

(A) A Cultural Organization desires to organize a programme of two categories, Viz.: Classical Dance performances and Music Concerts in a week commencing from Sunday to Saturday.

(B) There will be four dance performances viz: Kathakali, Bharatnatyam, Katthak and Oddyssi, and three musical concerts : Pure Classical, Semi Classical and Light music.

(C) Of these seven performances, no two of the same category will be organized on two consecutive days.

(D) The programme is to start with Kathakali, and Semi-Classical is to be organized on the middle day of the week.

(E) Bharatnatyam is to be organized on the previous day of Pure Classical.

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Bharatnatyam can be organized on:

1. only Tuesday

2. only Friday

3. only Thursday

4. cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

With the given specifications, the only programme that can be arranged on Monday is:

1. Semi classical

2. Light music

3. Pure classical

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Which of the following can be the last programme of the week?

1. Oddyssi or Katthak

2. only Oddyssi

3. only Pure classical

4. cannot be determined

5. none of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the programme is required to start with Pure Classical on Sunday, which of the conditions given above can NOT be adhered to?

1. Only (E)

2. Only (C)

3. Only (D)

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Katthak can be organized on:

1. only Thursday

2. only Friday

3. only Saturday

4. on Tuesday or Saturday

5. None of these

Analytical Reasoning - VI

Description:

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.

An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

(1) if only assumption I is implicit.

(2) if only assumption II is implicit

(3) if either I or II is implicit;

(4) if neither I nor II is implicit

(5) if both I and II are implicit.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statement

The only way to contain the circulation of black money in the market is to make the tax laws more liberal and user friendly.

Assumptions

I. Tax laws in India are draconian and inadequate.

II. Circulation of black money in the market is undesirable.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement

Teachers of many schools and colleges are breaking all norms of the profession and provoking unnecessary controversies by entering into the active party politics.

Assumptions

I. Teachers should be above party politics.

II. Teachers should take part in social activities rather than party politics.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement

What is needed at the center to-day is the will and determination to govern and not authoritarian government.

Assumptions

I. Authoritarianism and effective governance go hand in hand.

II. Will and determination to govern and non-authoritarian government are the two sites of the same coin.

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement

India needs competent manpower just as urgently as it needs massive capital inflow for rapid economic development.

Assumptions

I. India cannot achieve fast economic growth without massive does of capital.

II. Competent manpower is necessary for rapid economic development.



Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement

If you want to understand the determinants of effective leadership, this is one of the available books.

Assumptions

I. If is essential for everyone to understand the determinants of effective leadership.

II. Wrong understanding may be gained if this book is not read.

Description:

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions, which are numbered

I, II and III. Assuming that all the given statements are True, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statements

All fans are phones. All phones are letters. Some letters are bulbs.

Conclusions

I. Some letters are phones.

II. Some phones are fans.

III. All fans are letters

1. Only I follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only III follows

4. Only II and III follow

5. None follows

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statements

Most psychologists are historians. No historian is economist.

All economists are psychologists.

Conclusions

I. Some historians are psychologists

II. All psychologists are economists

III. No economist is historian.

1. Only II follows

2. Only I and II follow

3. Only II and III follow

4. Only I and III follow

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statements

Some flowers are gifts. All gifts are books. All books are tables.

Conclusions

I. Some tables are flowers.

II. Some flowers are tables.

III. All tables are books.

1. Only I follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only II and III follow

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statements

Some banks are factories. Some factories are offices. All offices are prisons

Conclusions

I. All prisons are factories.

II. Some Banks are prisons.

III. Some offices are banks.

1. None follows

2. All the three follow

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only II and III follow

5. Only I and III follow

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statements

All principals are teachers. All teachers are schools. All schools are grounds.

Conclusions

I. Some teachers are grounds.

II. All teachers are principals.

III. All principals are grounds.

1. Only I and II follow

2. Only I and III follow

3. Only II and III follow

4. None follows

5. All follows

Question 1. (Single Selection)

STATE is related to ESTATE in the same way as TUMBLE is related to ________?

1. Fumble

2. Crumble

3. Stumble

4. Mumble

5. Humble

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If the following alphabet were written in the reverse order, which will be the fifth letter to the right of

the eleventh letter from the left?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

1. J

2. K

3. L

4. P

5. U

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Four of the following five English words are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

1. C-G

2. T-X

3. E-I

4. J-N

5. M-Q

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the first and the third letters in the word CONTRIBUTION were interchanged, also the second and fourth letters, the fifth and seventh and so on, which letter would be eighth, counting from your left?

1. I

2. B

3. U

4. R

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

If A ^ B means “A is the father of B” A < B means “A is the sister of B”, A > B means “A is the brother of B”, then how is P related to R in the following codified relationship?

R < S ^ P > T

1. Aunt

2. Cousin

3. Niece

4. Nephew

5. None of these

Question 6. (Single Selection)

Given that “Mountain is greater than or equal to Tree”, Tree is smaller than Ocean”, and “Ocean is not greater than River”, which of the following statements can be definitely TRUE?

1. Mountain is either greater than or equal to River

2. River is either smaller than or equal to Tree

3. River is greater than Tree

4. Mountain is either greater than or equal to Ocean

5. None of these

Question 7. (Single Selection)

In a certain code ASHOK is written as LMIQB, how will MEDHA be written in that code?

1. BFCDN

2. BFECN

3. BFEFN

4. BIECN

5. None of these

Question 8. (Single Selection)

“t” is in ‘Often’ in the same way as “h” is in ________?

1. Inhibit

2. House

3. Enhance

4. Hope

5. Hour

Question 9. (Single Selection)

In a certain code LARGEST is written as SRDFQZK. How would RATION be written in the code?

1. MNHSAQ

2. MNISZQ

3. MNHDZQ

4. MNHSZQ

5. None of these

Question 10. (Single Selection)

If Y denotes ÷, Q denotes x, and T denotes +, then 15Q13Y3T6 = ?

1. 65

2. 591

3. 71

4. 946

5. None of these

Question 11. (Single Selection)

In a certain game, if a person steps on the particular square he gets one rupee and every time he misses the particular square he has to pay one rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of Rs.

40. How may times did he step on the particular square?

1. 75

2. 65

3. 55

4. 60

5. 70

Analytical Reasoning - II

Description:

These questions are based on the following series of elements (English letters, numerals and symbols).

A B 8 @ E 2 $ + 5 J 3 6 M * % P 7 9 S 4 U ? 1 X { }

Time Limit: 3 min 20 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

If the first two elements interchange their positions, the third and the fourth elements interchange their positions, and so on and so forth, which of the following triplet will show the exact sequence of the

three elements in the new arrangement?

1. X 1 {

2. 5 6 3

3. P M %

4. * P M

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If this series is of English alphabet, in which some letters are represented by numerals or symbols, which letter is represented by the element which is exactly midway between11th element from the left and the 10th element from the right?

1. L

2. Q

3. O

4. N

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

How many such letters are there in the above series, each of which is immediately preceded by a numeral and immediately followed by a symbol?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If numbers from 1 to 9, in the serial order, expresses the English letters that appear in the above series,

what will be the sum of all the numerals, the old and the new together?

1. 90

2. 45

3. 36

4. 18

5. None of these

Analytical Reasoning - III

Description:

In the following questions the symbols <, >, &, £ and ? are used with the following meaning:

A > B means A is smaller than B

A < B means A is greater than B

A & B means A is either greater than or equal to B

A £ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B

A ? B means A is equal to B

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below them is/ are definitely true?

Statement

J & I, C > O, I < O

Conclusions

I. C > J

II. C > I

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement

J > S, S ? Z, Z > W

Conclusions

I. Z ? J

II. W > J

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement

Y £ W, W ? X, X & U

Conclusions

I. Y > X

II. Y ? X

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement

C < L, Z > J, L & Z

Conclusions

I. L > J

II. C < J

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement

E & C, L < Z, C > Z

Conclusions

I. E < Z

II. L < C

1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true

3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Analytical Reasoning - IV

Description:

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the

statements and –

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are notsufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone OR in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

CAUTION: Do NOT mark your answer unless you consider both the statements carefully.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

If “6 5 9” stands for “we are healthy”, which digit stands for ,healthy,?

I. “5 7” stands for “healthy habits”.

II. “693” stands for “we are busy”.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Who among A, B, C, D and E is the tallest?

I. E is taller than three of them but not as tall as A.

II. B is taller than D and C; but not tall as A.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

In a seven-storey building with one flat on each storey, who among A, B, C, D, E, & F occupies the middlemost flat?

I. A and D occupy the flats on the two extremes storeys and they have C and E as their immediate neighbors.

II. The flat occupied by B is not in the middle.

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Which code stands for “Brazil” in a code language in which “Mob” stands for “Argentina.”?

I. “Dip Mob Nod” denotes “Brazil defeated Argentina”, in that code.

II. “Italy defeated Argentina” is denoted by “ Sip Dip Mob” in that code.

Question 5. (Single Selection)

What is the area of a circular playground that has a wire fencing around it?

I. The cost of fencing was Rs. 15, 626 at the rate of Rs. 35 per Kg.

II. The fencing is 63 meters away from the center of the playground.

Analytical Reasoning - V

Description:

Read the following information and answer the questions.

(A) A Cultural Organization desires to organize a programme of two categories, Viz.: Classical Dance performances and Music Concerts in a week commencing from Sunday to Saturday.

(B) There will be four dance performances viz: Kathakali, Bharatnatyam, Katthak and Oddyssi, and three musical concerts : Pure Classical, Semi Classical and Light music.

(C) Of these seven performances, no two of the same category will be organized on two consecutive days.

(D) The programme is to start with Kathakali, and Semi-Classical is to be organized on the middle day of the week.

(E) Bharatnatyam is to be organized on the previous day of Pure Classical.

Bharatnatyam can be organized on:

1. only Tuesday

2. only Friday

3. only Thursday

4. cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

With the given specifications, the only programme that can be arranged on Monday is:

1. Semi classical

2. Light music

3. Pure classical

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Which of the following can be the last programme of the week?

1. Oddyssi or Katthak

2. only Oddyssi

3. only Pure classical

4. cannot be determined

5. none of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the programme is required to start with Pure Classical on Sunday, which of the conditions given above can NOT be adhered to?

1. Only (E)

2. Only (C)

3. Only (D)

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Katthak can be organized on:

1. only Thursday

2. only Friday

3. only Saturday

4. on Tuesday or Saturday

5. None of these

Analytical Reasoning - VI

Description:

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An

assumption is something supposed

or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide

which of the assumptions is

implicit in the statement. Give answer

(1) if only assumption I is implicit.

(2) if only assumption II is implicit

(3) if either I or II is implicit;

(4) if neither I nor II is implicit

(5) if both I and II are implicit.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statement

The only way to contain the circulation of black money in the market is to make the tax laws more

liberal and user friendly.

Assumptions

I. Tax laws in India are draconian and inadequate.

II. Circulation of black money in the market is undesirable.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement

Teachers of many schools and colleges are breaking all norms of the profession and provoking unnecessary controversies by entering into the active party politics.

Assumptions

I. Teachers should be above party politics.

II. Teachers should take part in social activities rather than party politics.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement

What is needed at the center to-day is the will and determination to govern and not authoritarian government.

Assumptions

I. Authoritarianism and effective governance go hand in hand.

II. Will and determination to govern and non-authoritarian government are the two sites of the same coin.

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement

India needs competent manpower just as urgently as it needs massive capital inflow for rapid economic development.

Assumptions

I. India cannot achieve fast economic growth without massive does of capital.

II. Competent manpower is necessary for rapid economic development.

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement

If you want to understand the determinants of effective leadership, this is one of the available books.

Assumptions

I. If is essential for everyone to understand the determinants of effective leadership.

II. Wrong understanding may be gained if this book is not read.

Analytical Reasoning - VII

Description:

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions, which are numbered I, II and III. Assuming that all the given statements are True, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements

All fans are phones. All phones are letters. Some letters are bulbs.

Conclusions

I. Some letters are phones.

II. Some phones are fans.

III. All fans are letters

1. Only I follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only III follows

4. Only II and III follow

5. None follows

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statements

Most psychologists are historians. No historian is economist. All economists

are psychologists.

Conclusions

I. Some historians are psychologists

II. All psychologists are economists

III. No economist is historian.

1. Only II follows

2. Only I and II follow

3. Only II and III follow

4. Only I and III follow

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statements

Some flowers are gifts. All gifts are books. All books are tables.

Conclusions

I. Some tables are flowers.

II. Some flowers are tables.

III. All tables are books.

1. Only I follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only II and III follow

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statements

Some banks are factories. Some factories are offices. All offices are prisons

Conclusions

I. All prisons are factories.

II. Some Banks are prisons.

III. Some offices are banks.

1. None follows

2. All the three follow

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only II and III follow

5. Only I and III follow

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statements

All principals are teachers. All teachers are schools. All schools are grounds.

Conclusions

I. Some teachers are grounds.

II. All teachers are principals.

III. All principals are grounds.

1. Only I and II follow

2. Only I and III follow

3. Only II and III follow

4. None follows

5. All follow

The sum of the squares of three consecutive natural numbers is 2030, then the middle number is:

1. 24

2. 26

3. 25

4. 27

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

A student got thrice as many marks in Arithmetic as in English. If the total of his marks in the two

subjects is 128, how many marks did he get in English?

1. 32

2. 64

3. 96

4. 16

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720/-, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball

in rupees is:

1. 45

2. 50

3. 55

4. 60

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

? ÷ √ 0.81 = 300

1. 2700

2. 270

3. 33.33

4. 540

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The difference between a number and its four-fifth is 25. What is the number?

1. 75

2. 100

3. 125

4. 150

5. None of these

Question 6. (Single Selection)

The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on certain sum of money

for two years at 4% per anum is Rs. 1/-. The sum in Rs. is:

1. 625

2. 630

3. 640

4. 650

5. None of these

Question 7. (Single Selection)

A batsman scored 150 runs which included 5 boundaries, 2 sixes and other singles. What percentage of

his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

1. 78.66

2. 75.66

3. 80.66

4. 82.66

5. None of these

Question 8. (Single Selection)

How many of the following numbers are divisible by 3 and not by 9?

2133, 2343, 3474, 4131, 5286, 5340

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 6

5. None of these

Question 9. (Single Selection)

Which of the following number will be wrong in the number series?

7 13 22 31 49 67 88

1. 13

2. 21

3. 31

4. 49

5. 67

Question 10. (Single Selection)

Two radios and one calculator can cost Rs.3300, while two calculators and one radio cost Rs.5400.

What is the price of a radio?

1. Rs. 2500

2. Rs. 700

3. Rs. 400

4. Rs. 1100

5. None of these

Question 11. (Single Selection)

The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5 p.c.p.a is Rs.202.50 in one year. How much will the additional interest be in one year on the same deposit at 5 p.c.p.a?

1. 20.25

2. 22.50

3. 225

4. 427.5

5. None of these

Question 12. (Single Selection)

An alloy is to contain copper and zinc in the ratio 9 : 5. How much zinc is required to be melted with 24 kg of copper?

1. 43.00

2. 43.20

3. 44.00

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Question 13. (Single Selection)

(16 X 16 – 56) ÷ [(13 X 12) - (8 X 7)] = ?

1. 4

2. 20

3. 200

4. 100

5. None of these

Question 14. (Single Selection)

A man in a train notices that he can count 20 electric poles in one minute. If the poles are 40 meters apart, what is the speed of the train in Km/Hr?

1. 60

2. 45

3. 48

4. 54

5. None of these

Question 15. (Single Selection)

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank independently in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes were used together, how long would it take to fill the tank?

1. 12 min

2. 15 min

3. 25 min

4. 50 min

5. None of these

Question 16. (Single Selection)

If 24 men do a work in 40 days, in how many days will 30 men do it?

1. 30

2. 28

3. 26

4. 34

5. None of these

Question 17. (Single Selection)

? X 15 = 65% of 300

1. 195

2. 130

3. 2925

4. 13

5. None of these

Question 18. (Single Selection)

The average age of 28 employees is 23 years. If the manager’s age is also included, the average age increases by one year. What is the manager’s age in years?

1. 28

2. 51

3. 52

4. 53

5. None of these

Question 19. (Single Selection)

The difference between squares of two consecutive even numbers is always divisible by:

1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 2

5. None of these

Question 20. (Single Selection)

Ashutosh purchased a motor cycle at (13/15)th of its selling price and sold it at 12% more than its selling price. Ashutosh’s net gain is:

1. 20%

2. 29.23%

3. 30.67%

4. 38.13%

5. None of these

Question 21. (Single Selection)

Which number should replace both the question marks in ? ÷ 32 = 392 ÷ ?

1. 112

2. 32

3. 16

4. 196

5. None of these

Question 22. (Single Selection)

If 3690 ÷ 20.5 = 180; 36.90 ÷ 2.05 = ?

1. 0.18

2. 1.8

3. 18

4. 1800

5. None of these

Question 23. (Single Selection)

A mother is three times as old as her son. After 15 years she will be twice as old as her son. What is the present age of the mother in years?

1. 40

2. 50

3. 60

4. 70

5. None of these

Question 24. (Single Selection)

‘A’ started business investing Rs.6000/-. Three months later ‘B’ joined him investing Rs.4000/-. If they

make a profit of Rs.5100/- at the end of the year, how much should be ‘B’s’ share?

1. Rs. 1700

2. Rs. 3400

3. Rs. 1300

4. Rs. 1732.75

5. None of these

Question 25. (Single Selection)

20 transistors go in a box and two dozen boxes are packed in a carton. How many cartons will be needed to pack 1920 transistors?

1. 96

2. 12

3. 8

4. 4

5. None of these

Marks Interval (Marks out of 50)

41-50 31-40 21-30 11-20 1-10

Mathematics 23 09 48 12 08

Accounts 04 21 60 10 05

Approximate number of students in marks interval for both the subjects

13 15 54 11 7

If it is known that at least 28% marks are required for the students to be eligible for a seminar on

Accounts. The numbers of Accounts students who can give the seminar are:

1. 85

2. 80

3. 95

4. 91

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The approximate number of students securing less than 41 marks in both the subjects is

1. 91

2. 85

3. 93

4. 87

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

What is the difference between the number of students getting at least 21 marks in Accounts over those

getting at least 21 marks in Mathematics approximately?

1. 19

2. 12

3. 7

4. 5

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

What is the difference between the number of students passed with at least 31 marks both in Accounts

and Mathematics?

1. 9

2. 19

3. 12

4. 7

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

If at least 31 marks in Mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in Mathematics, how many students would be eligible to pursue higher studies in Mathematics?

1. 60

2. 32

3. 57

4. 68

5. None of these

Expenditure of a company in Lac Rupees per annum over the given years

Salary Fuel & Transport Bonus Interest on

Loans Taxes

1998 150 100 5 25 85

1999 175 150 5 35 115

2000 200 175 10 45 75

2001 225 275 10 50 125

2002 250 400 20 45 100

TOT

AL 1000 1000 50 200 500

Question 1. (Single Selection)

What is the percentage of the total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period in relation to the salary paid during the given period?

1. 20%

2. 4%

3. 3%

4. 2%

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The total expenditure of the company for all items of expenditure for the year 2002 is what percent of the year 2000?

1. 61

2. 18

3. 69

4. 38

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The total expenditure for all the items of expenditure in the year 1998 to the year 2002 is approximately:

1. 59%

2. 54%

3. 458%

4. 41%

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

What is the average amount of interest per year, which the company had to pay during these years?

1. 50

2. 35

3. 40

4. 45

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes and the total expenditure on fuel and transport respectively for all the years is approximately:

1. 3 : 4

2. 1 : 2

3. 2 : 3

4. 1 : 4

5. None of these

Description:

The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country in million US$ for the years 1991-1992 to 1998-1999.

Answer the questions based on this graph given below:

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

What was the % decrease in foreign exchange reserves in 1998-1999 over 1996-1997?

1. 11.28

2. 14.28

3. 11.28

4. 17.28

5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

The average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review are:

1. 325

2. 300

3. 314

4. 250

5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The foreign exchange reserves of how many years is above the average foreign exchange reserves of

the given period?

1. 5

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

The foreign exchange reserves in 1996-1997 was approximately how many times that of the year

1992-1993?

1. 1.21

2. 1.24

3. 1.27

4. 1.30

5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

What was the approximate % increase in foreign exchange reserves in 1997-1998 over 1995-1996?

1. 33

2. 36

3. 39

4. 30

5. None of thes

Technical Questions:

1) Composition of gunmetal?.

2) What is the fuel used in airplanes?.

3) Specific heat capacity of air?.

4) Melting point of Aluminum?.

5) If a ball is kept at aheight of x(m),from that position it is dropeed .Does the p.e is equal to the K.e if

6) the ball goes inside the earth as same distance where it is relieved?.

7) Viscosity of the lubricant ---------- with increase in temperature?.

8) What amount of power required to make the 2-strke petrol engine to 4-stroke diesel engine?.

9) Which engine is the most efficient in terms of compression ratio?.

10) for the same compression ratio heat removed in each cycle is efficient in otto or diesel cycle?.

11) Use of draft tube in turbine ?.a) to increase work o/p of runner b) To increase turbine output.

12) Percentage of carbon in toolsteel?.

13) Introduction of sulphur in mild steel increases or decreases the machinability?.

14) Is bernoullis theorem is applicable for steady or unsteady flow?.

15) Axial turbine is of which type?.a) high head b) low head.

16) corrosion is inhibited due to oxidation or reduction?.

17) Binary power cycle uses ---------as working fluid?.

18) the purpose of runner in casting ----------

19) shape of a u.d.l.of cantilever beam is?.

20) which has high coefficient of friction ?.disc or band brakes

21) Engine valve seat is cooled at ----- temperature in liquid nitrogen(-180C)

22) 21)Bucling is high in bar which is greater or smaller in length?.

23) Formula for deflection of beam? Ans; PL/AE

24) Which law says that pressure can be transferred from onr point to another in an undiminished form?.

25) Is Vane pump is Positive or non-positive displacement pump?.

26) As the altitude why density of the decreases?.

27) In the reversible adiabatic process entrophy is constant or not?

28) In which process the temperature of the system changes but there is no heat transfer to the surroundings?.

29) In an ideal gas compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies?

30) Kinetic theory of gases assumes that collisions between the molecules are?

31) The condition of perfect vacuum that is at absolute zero pressure can be attained at?

32) Specific heat of air?

33) Which law states that internal energy is function of Temperature?

34) Minimum work done for an adiabatic process the value of n?

35) Air Refrigerator works on?

36) 1 watt = 1Nm/S

37) 1 h.p = ?kw

38) When crude oil heated Which Hydro carbon comes first?

39) What is the purpose of Supercharger?

40) 1Kg of carbon to CO, Amount oxygen required?

41) Horse power per tones of refrigeration?

42) Scale formation on the surface of the boiler tubes due to ?

43) Axial shift in steam turbine occurs due to?

44) Latent heat of vapourization at low pressure and temperature?

45) Shaft revolving in a bearing which pair?

46) Difference between dedendum and addendum?

47) The fatique life of a part can be improved by ?

48) Rotational tendency of force?

49) Acetylene dissolved in ?

50) The frequency of transverse vibration is 3hz then critical speed?

51) More viscous lub oil?

52) Example for Non destructive test?

53) Advantage of V belt?

54) In gear boxes Which type of key is used

55) A structural member subjected to an axial compressive force is called?

56) Pig iron is produced in which furnace?

57) Heat generation of arc welding is due to ?

58) In what angle does an object thrown height will travel the longest distance?

59) Angle of contact between the journal and bearing?

60) The coupling is required to connect two parallel shaft distance between the shaft is small and variable?

61) Carbon is added to steel to increase its hardness-True/False

62) Wings of airplane are made by---

63) To protect from thrust which type of follower is used?

64) With increase in temperature--- Viscosity of liquid---

65) Heavy machine beds are made of CI for-------

66) For shock resistance and vibrations we use ----

67) Rupture strength==== ?

68) Washer is used for-------

69) Surface endurance limit depends on (toughness/surface tension/yield strength/surface finish)

70) In a uniformly distributed load of 6n/m over a 5 meter length simply supported beam, the value of B.M at the point where shear force is zero (17.5/22.5/55/75)

71) Cam size depends on (base circle/pitch circle/prime circle/none)

72) Poisons ratio is higher in (rubber/steel/wood)

73) In drill tool carbon % is (<0.4 %, 0.8% -1.6%, 1-2.5%) finishing operation in lathe is done at(low speed/high speed)

74) Degree of freedom in super structure (1/positive/negative/zero)

75) Axial compressors follow the process in ideal conditions (adiabatic/isotropic/isothermal) forced draft has negative pressure drop(true or false)

76) Advantage of v-belt?

77) The key used in the gears for transmitting power(flat/saddle/spline/square)

78) Dye penetration test is (pouring/surface tension/capillary/none)

79) poisson ratio?

80) endurance limit is depend upon—1.toughness 2.elasticity 3.britleness?

81) in which furnace ,pig iron is made?

82) corrosion resistant material?

83) centipoise is unit of ?

84) broaching is made to produce?

85) steady rest is used for?

86) drill angle?

87) In parson,s turbine ,relation between angles?

88) v-belt angle?

89) Refrigerant used in refrigerator?

90) Composition of babbit metal?

91) Cantilever beam failure of surface finish is represented by?

92) At what angle in the valve timing, Diesel engine injection occurs?

93) Name any one non destructive test?

94) Clutch is located between?

95) What is the Melting pt of iron?

96) Name any one Gear material?

97) Drill material composition?

98) Which mechanism is used to hold the gear ?

99) Reynolds number range for laminar flow –?

Nusselt (for natural) number is function of which number?

Angle of contact between journal and bearing?

1) What is the function of cutting fluid?

2) Dual cycle combination of which two cycles?

3) In screw jack --------which thread is used?—

4) ACME thread angle?

5) Frequency of a system is 3 Hz then find the speed in rpm?

6) For which gear shafts are co-axial?

7) say true/false:

8) in simple gear train every shaft is attached with one simple gear only

9) Radiation heat transfer is varied with T to the power of 4.

10) GD topics:

11) Democracy is the only way to sustain economy growth

12) Should Indian youth involving Politics

13) Foreign investment should allow directly to India

14) Foods come first ethics come later

15) TV channels can be regional , International

Question 1. (Single Selection)

What is an irregular suture-like boundary developed in limestones, formed by pressure-controlled solution followed by immediate local redeposition called?

1. Stylolite

2. Ammoniatic Suture

3. Secondary Fracture

4. None of the above

Question 2. (Single Selection)

What is a term used to describe a particle whose size is between 2 and 74 micrometers (200 mesh)?

1. Sand

2. Silt

3. Clay

4. None of the above

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The application of plant and animal fossils to date and correlate strata in order to elucidate Earth

history, combining the principles of paleontology and Stratigraphy is known as

1. Biostratigraphy

2. Chronostratigraphy

3. Lithostratigraphy

4. None of the above

Question 4. (Single Selection)

The accumulation of stratigraphic sequences by deposition that stacks beds atop each other, building upwards during periods of balance between sediment supply and accommodation known as

1. Aggradation

2. Progradation

3. Transgression

4. None of the above

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The set of valves, spools and fittings connected to the top of a well to direct and control the flow of formation fluids from the well is

1. BHA

2. BHT

3. Christmas Tree

4. None of the above

Question 6. (Single Selection)

What do you call a relatively impermeable rock, commonly shale, anhydrite or salt that forms a barrier above and around reservoir rock so that fluids cannot migrate beyond the reservoir?

1. Source Rock

2. Reservoir Rock

3. Cap Rock

4. None of the above

Question 7. (Single Selection)

A mineral composed of ferrous carbonate, FeCO3, and having 3.8 g/cm3 specific gravity. It is found as an accessory mineral in some shales and carbonate rocks and also in some barite and hematite ores.

Name the Mineral.

1. Hematite

2. Siderite

3. Pyrite

4. None of the above

Question 8. (Single Selection)

A geologic surface that separates younger strata from older strata and represents a time of nondeposition, where horizontally parallel strata of sedimentary rock are deposited on tilted and eroded layers that may be either vertical or at an angle to the overlying horizontal layers is named as

1. Angular Unconformity Surface

2. Paraconformity Surface

3. Nonconformity surface

4. None of the above

Question 9. (Single Selection)

Which rock type has relatively large amounts of organic material compared with other rock types and thus has potential to become a rich hydrocarbon source rock?

1. Sandstone

2. Shale

3. Limestone

4. Anhydrite

Question 10. (Single Selection)

An arcuate deposit of sediment, usually sand, that occurs along the convex inner edges of the meanders of channels and builds outward as the stream channel migrates is called

1. Distal Bars

2. Point Bars

3. Levees

4. None of the above

Question 11. (Single Selection)

The lower portion of the drillstring, consisting of the bit, bit sub, a mud motor (in certain cases), stabilizers, drill collars, heavy-weight drillpipe, jarring devices ("jars") and crossovers for various threadforms is referred as

1. Drill Bit Assembly

2. Bit Breaker Assembly

3. Bottom Hole Assembly

4. None of the above

Question 12. (Single Selection)

A representation of the integrity of the cement job, especially whether the cement is adhering solidly to the outside of the casing. The log is typically obtained from one of a variety of sonic-type tools. The log is

1. Cement Bond Log

2. Wait-on Cement Log

3. Cement Log

4. None of the above

Question 13. (Single Selection)

What is the Type of naturally occurring, solid, insoluble organic matter that occurs in source rocks, consists of mainly algal and amorphous (but presumably algal) kerogen and is highly likely to generate oil?

1. Kerogen I

2. Kerogen II

3. Kerogen III

4. None of the above

Question 14. (Single Selection)

An arch-shaped fold in rock in which rock layers are upwardly convex and the oldest rock layers form the core of the fold, and outward from the core progressively younger rocks occur. The structure is

1. Syncline

2. Structural Trap

3. Anticline

4. Diapir

Question 15. (Single Selection)

What is the main reservoir rock type present in the Bombay High field?

1. Limestone

2. Sandstone

3. Siltstone

4. None of the above

Question 16. (Single Selection)

The overall characteristics of a rock unit that reflect its origin and differentiate the unit from others around it is called

1. Lithological Properties

2. Geochemical Properties

3. Facies

4. None of the above

Question 17. (Single Selection)

A linear, commonly concave-based depression through which water and sediment flow and into which sediment can be deposited in distinctive, often elongated bodies, is called

1. Canyon

2. Channel

3. Valley

4. None of the above

Question 18. (Single Selection)

What is the type of fault formed when the hanging wall fault block moves up along a fault surface relative to the footwall, the fault plane generally has a shallow dip, typically much less than 45º?

1. Reverse Fault

2. Normal Fault

3. Dip Fault

4. None of the above

Question 19. (Single Selection)

A carbonate sedimentary rock predominantly composed of calcite of organic, chemical or detrital origin. Minor amounts of dolomite, chert and clay are commonly present. The sedimentary rock is

1. Limestone

2. Dolostone

3. Micrite

4. None of the above

Question 20. (Single Selection)

What is the name for a contour map that connects points of equal thickness, display the stratigraphic thickness of a rock unit as opposed to the true vertical thickness?

1. Isochron Map

2. Isopach Map

3. Isobar Map

4. None of the above

Question 21. (Single Selection)

A chronological chart of the stages and ages of events in the history of the Earth, from its initial formation to present, that has been constructed on the basis of the rock record is called

1. Chronographic Scale

2. Biostratigraphic Scale

3. Geologic Time Scale

4. None of the above

Question 22. (Single Selection)

What is a sedimentary rock and a variety of quartz made of extremely fine-grained, or cryptocrystalline, silica, also called chalcedony?

1. Opal

2. Chert

3. Rosy Quartz

4. None of the above

Question 23. (Single Selection)

The vertical distance from a point in the well (usually the current or final depth) to a point at the surface, usually the elevation of the rotary kelly bushing (RKB) is called

1. Measured Depth

2. Total Depth

3. True Vertical Depth

4. None of the above

Question 24. (Single Selection)

Which kerogen consisting of mixed terrestrial and marine source material is likely to generate waxy oil over time, when subjected to optimum temperature and pressure conditions?

1. Type - I

2. Type - II

3. Type - III

4. None of the above

Question 25. (Single Selection)

The lightest and most abundant of the hydrocarbon gases and the principal component of natural gas. It is colorless gas that is stable under a wide range of pressure and temperature conditions in the absence of other compounds, the gas is

1. Helium

2. Methane (CH4)

3. Ethane

4. Butane

Question 26. (Single Selection)

What are sedimentary structures resulting from biological activities, which include burrows, tracks,faecal pellets etc. called?

1. Biological Fossils

2. Trace Fossils

3. Reefs

4. None of the above

Question 27. (Single Selection)

Natural gas that does not contain hydrogen sulfide [H2S] or significant quantities of carbon dioxide [CO2], is called as

1. Coal Bed Methane (CBM)

2. Sweet Gas

3. Condensate

4. None of the above

Question 28. (Single Selection)

The study of the ages of strata. The comparison, or correlation, of separated strata can include study of their relative or absolute ages is called

1. Biostratigraphy

2. Chronostratigraphy

3. Lithostratigraphy

4. None of the above

Question 29. (Single Selection)

In folded rocks, the imaginary surface bisecting the limbs of the fold is called

1. Mirror Plane

2. Axial Plane

3. Orthographic Plane

4. None of the above

Question 30. (Single Selection)

The geochemical process by which magnesium [Mg] ions replace calcium [Ca] ions in calcite, is called as

1. Dolomitization

2. Primary Diagenesis

3. Secondary Diagenesis

4. None of the above

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Test Paper

ESSAR GROUPS

PROCEDURE:

   STAGE I    : WRITTEN TEST (ELIMINATION)
   STAGE II   : GROUP DISCUSSION (ELIMINATION)
   STAGE III  : INTERVIEW (ELIMINATION)


WRITTEN TEST:
   SECTION I: MECHANICAL COMPREHENSION (FIGURATIVE)
   25 MINS 40 QUESTIONS

SAME AS L&T COMPREHENSION PAPER

   SECTION II: TECHINCAL TEST
   30 MINS 50 QUESTIONS

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Technical - Other

Time Limit: 30 min 0 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

What is an irregular suture-like boundary developed in limestones, formed by pressure-controlled solution followed by immediate local redeposition called?

1. Stylolite
2. Ammoniatic Suture
3. Secondary Fracture
4. None of the above

Question 2. (Single Selection)

What is a term used to describe a particle whose size is between 2 and 74 micrometers (200 mesh)?

1. Sand
2. Silt
3. Clay
4. None of the above

Question 3. (Single Selection)

The application of plant and animal fossils to date and correlate strata in order to elucidate Earth history, combining the principles of paleontology and Stratigraphy is known as

1. Biostratigraphy
2. Chronostratigraphy
3. Lithostratigraphy
4. None of the above

Question 4. (Single Selection)

The accumulation of stratigraphic sequences by deposition that stacks beds atop each other, building upwards during periods of balance between sediment supply and accommodation known as

1. Aggradation
2. Progradation
3. Transgression
4. None of the above

Question 5. (Single Selection)

The set of valves, spools and fittings connected to the top of a well to direct and control the flow of formation fluids from the well is

1. BHA
2. BHT
3. Christmas Tree
4. None of the above

Question 6. (Single Selection)

What do you call a relatively impermeable rock, commonly shale, anhydrite or salt that forms a barrier above and around reservoir rock so that fluids cannot migrate beyond the reservoir?

1. Source Rock
2. Reservoir Rock
3. Cap Rock
4. None of the above

Question 7. (Single Selection)

A mineral composed of ferrous carbonate, FeCO3, and having 3.8 g/cm3 specific gravity. It is found as an accessory mineral in some shales and carbonate rocks and also in some barite and hematite ores. Name the Mineral.

1. Hematite
2. Siderite
3. Pyrite
4. None of the above

Question 8. (Single Selection)

A geologic surface that separates younger strata from older strata and represents a time of non-deposition, where horizontally parallel strata of sedimentary rock are deposited on tilted and eroded layers that may be either vertical or at an angle to the overlying horizontal layers is named as

1. Angular Unconformity Surface
2. Paraconformity Surface
3. Nonconformity surface
4. None of the above

Question 9. (Single Selection)

Which rock type has relatively large amounts of organic material compared with other rock types and thus has potential to become a rich hydrocarbon source rock?

1. Sandstone
2. Shale
3. Limestone
4. Anhydrite

Question 10. (Single Selection)

An arcuate deposit of sediment, usually sand, that occurs along the convex inner edges of the meanders of channels and builds outward as the stream channel migrates is called

1. Distal Bars
2. Point Bars
3. Levees
4. None of the above

Question 11. (Single Selection)

The lower portion of the drillstring, consisting of the bit, bit sub, a mud motor (in certain cases), stabilizers, drill collars, heavy-weight drillpipe, jarring devices ("jars") and crossovers for various threadforms is referred as

1. Drill Bit Assembly
2. Bit Breaker Assembly
3. Bottom Hole Assembly
4. None of the above

Question 12. (Single Selection)

A representation of the integrity of the cement job, especially whether the cement is adhering solidly to the outside of the casing. The log is typically obtained from one of a variety of sonic-type tools. The log is

1. Cement Bond Log
2. Wait-on Cement Log
3. Cement Log
4. None of the above

Question 13. (Single Selection)

What is the Type of naturally occurring, solid, insoluble organic matter that occurs in source rocks, consists of mainly algal and amorphous (but presumably algal) kerogen and is highly likely to generate oil?

1. Kerogen I
2. Kerogen II
3. Kerogen III
4. None of the above

Question 14. (Single Selection)

An arch-shaped fold in rock in which rock layers are upwardly convex and the oldest rock layers form the core of the fold, and outward from the core progressively younger rocks occur. The structure is

1. Syncline
2. Structural Trap
3. Anticline
4. Diapir

Question 15. (Single Selection)

What is the main reservoir rock type present in the Bombay High field?

1. Limestone
2. Sandstone
3. Siltstone
4. None of the above

Question 16. (Single Selection)

The overall characteristics of a rock unit that reflect its origin and differentiate the unit from others around it is called

1. Lithological Properties
2. Geochemical Properties
3. Facies
4. None of the above

Question 17. (Single Selection)

A linear, commonly concave-based depression through which water and sediment flow and into which sediment can be deposited in distinctive, often elongated bodies, is called

1. Canyon
2. Channel
3. Valley
4. None of the above

Question 18. (Single Selection)

What is the type of fault formed when the hanging wall fault block moves up along a fault surface relative to the footwall, the fault plane generally has a shallow dip, typically much less than 45º?

1. Reverse Fault
2. Normal Fault
3. Dip Fault
4. None of the above

Question 19. (Single Selection)

A carbonate sedimentary rock predominantly composed of calcite of organic, chemical or detrital origin. Minor amounts of dolomite, chert and clay are commonly present. The sedimentary rock is

1. Limestone
2. Dolostone
3. Micrite
4. None of the above

Question 20. (Single Selection)

What is the name for a contour map that connects points of equal thickness, display the stratigraphic thickness of a rock unit as opposed to the true vertical thickness?

1. Isochron Map
2. Isopach Map
3. Isobar Map
4. None of the above

Question 21. (Single Selection)

A chronological chart of the stages and ages of events in the history of the Earth, from its initial formation to present, that has been constructed on the basis of the rock record is called

1. Chronographic Scale
2. Biostratigraphic Scale
3. Geologic Time Scale
4. None of the above

Question 22. (Single Selection)

What is a sedimentary rock and a variety of quartz made of extremely fine-grained, or cryptocrystalline, silica, also called chalcedony?

1. Opal
2. Chert
3. Rosy Quartz
4. None of the above
 

Question 23. (Single Selection)

The vertical distance from a point in the well (usually the current or final depth) to a point at the surface, usually the elevation of the rotary kelly bushing (RKB) is called

1. Measured Depth
2. Total Depth
3. True Vertical Depth
4. None of the above

Question 24. (Single Selection)

Which kerogen consisting of mixed terrestrial and marine source material is likely to generate waxy oil over time, when subjected to optimum temperature and pressure conditions?

1. Type - I
2. Type - II
3. Type - III
4. None of the above

Question 25. (Single Selection)

The lightest and most abundant of the hydrocarbon gases and the principal component of natural gas. It is colorless gas that is stable under a wide range of pressure and temperature conditions in the absence of other compounds, the gas is

1. Helium
2. Methane (CH4)
3. Ethane
4. Butane

Question 26. (Single Selection)

What are sedimentary structures resulting from biological activities, which include burrows, tracks, faecal pellets etc. called?

1. Biological Fossils
2. Trace Fossils
3. Reefs
4. None of the above

Question 27. (Single Selection)

Natural gas that does not contain hydrogen sulfide [H2S] or significant quantities of carbon dioxide [CO2], is called as

1. Coal Bed Methane (CBM)
2. Sweet Gas
3. Condensate
4. None of the above

Question 28. (Single Selection)

The study of the ages of strata. The comparison, or correlation, of separated strata can include study of their relative or absolute ages is called

1. Biostratigraphy
2. Chronostratigraphy
3. Lithostratigraphy
4. None of the above

Question 29. (Single Selection)

In folded rocks, the imaginary surface bisecting the limbs of the fold is called

1. Mirror Plane
2. Axial Plane
3. Orthographic Plane
4. None of the above

Question 30. (Single Selection)

The geochemical process by which magnesium [Mg] ions replace calcium [Ca] ions in calcite, is called as

1. Dolomitization
2. Primary Diagenesis
3. Secondary Diagenesis
4. None of the above

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Aptitude - General

 Analytical Reasoning - I

Time Limit: 9 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

STATE is related to ESTATE in the same way as TUMBLE is related to ________?

1. Fumble
2. Crumble
3. Stumble
4. Mumble
5. Humble

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If the following alphabet were written in the reverse order, which will be the fifth letter to the right of the eleventh letter from the left?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

1. J
2. K
3. L
4. P
5. U

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Four of the following five English words are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. C-G
2. T-X
3. E-I
4. J-N
5. M-Q

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the first and the third letters in the word CONTRIBUTION were interchanged, also the second and fourth letters, the fifth and seventh and so on, which letter would be eighth, counting from your left?

1. I
2. B
3. U
4. R
5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

If A ^ B means “A is the father of B” A < B means “A is the sister of B”, A > B means “A is the brother of B”, then how is P related to R in the following codified relationship?

R < S ^ P > T

1. Aunt
2. Cousin
3. Niece
4. Nephew
5. None of these

Question 6. (Single Selection)

Given that “Mountain is greater than or equal to Tree”, Tree is smaller than Ocean”, and “Ocean is not greater than River”, which of the following statements can be definitely TRUE?

1. Mountain is either greater than or equal to River
2. River is either smaller than or equal to Tree
3. River is greater than Tree
4. Mountain is either greater than or equal to Ocean
5. None of these

Question 7. (Single Selection)

In a certain code ASHOK is written as LMIQB, how will MEDHA be written in that code?

1. BFCDN
2. BFECN
3. BFEFN
4. BIECN
5. None of these

Question 8. (Single Selection)

“t” is in ‘Often’ in the same way as “h” is in ________?

1. Inhibit
2. House
3. Enhance
4. Hope
5. Hour

Question 9. (Single Selection)

In a certain code LARGEST is written as SRDFQZK. How would RATION be written in the code?

1. MNHSAQ
2. MNISZQ
3. MNHDZQ
4. MNHSZQ
5. None of these

Question 10. (Single Selection)

If Y denotes ÷, Q denotes x, and T denotes +, then 15Q13Y3T6 = ?

1. 65
2. 591
3. 71
4. 946
5. None of these

Question 11. (Single Selection)

In a certain game, if a person steps on the particular square he gets one rupee and every time he misses the particular square he has to pay one rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of Rs. 40. How may times did he step on the particular square?

1. 75
2. 65
3. 55
4. 60
5. 70
 

Analytical Reasoning - II

Description:

These questions are based on the following series of elements (English letters, numerals and symbols).

A B 8 @ E 2 $ + 5 J 3 6 M * % P 7 9 S 4 U ? 1 X { }

Time Limit: 3 min 20 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

If the first two elements interchange their positions, the third and the fourth elements interchange their positions, and so on and so forth, which of the following triplet will show the exact sequence of the three elements in the new arrangement?

1. X 1 {
2. 5 6 3
3. P M %
4. * P M
5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

If this series is of English alphabet, in which some letters are represented by numerals or symbols, which letter is represented by the element which is exactly midway between11th element from the left and the 10th element from the right?

1. L
2. Q
3. O
4. N
5. None of these

Question 3. (Single Selection)

How many such letters are there in the above series, each of which is immediately preceded by a numeral and immediately followed by a symbol?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If numbers from 1 to 9, in the serial order, expresses the English letters that appear in the above series, what will be the sum of all the numerals, the old and the new together?

1. 90
2. 45
3. 36
4. 18
5. None of these

 

Analytical Reasoning - III

Description:

In the following questions the symbols <, >, &, £ and ? are used with the following meaning:

A > B means A is smaller than B
A < B means A is greater than B
A & B means A is either greater than or equal to B
A £ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B
A ? B means A is equal to B

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below them is/ are definitely true?

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statement
J & I, C > O, I < O

Conclusions
I. C > J
II. C > I

1. Only Conclusion I is true
2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement
J > S, S ? Z, Z > W

Conclusions
I. Z ? J
II. W > J

1. Only Conclusion I is true
2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement
Y £ W, W ? X, X & U

Conclusions
I. Y > X
II. Y ? X

1. Only Conclusion I is true
2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement
C < L, Z > J, L & Z

Conclusions
I. L > J
II. C < J

1. Only Conclusion I is true
2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement
E & C, L < Z, C > Z

Conclusions
I. E < Z
II. L < C

1. Only Conclusion I is true
2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
5. Both the Conclusions I and II are true

Analytical Reasoning - IV

Description:

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and –

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone OR in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

CAUTION: Do NOT mark your answer unless you consider both the statements carefully.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

If “6 5 9” stands for “we are healthy”, which digit stands for ,healthy,?
I. “5 7” stands for “healthy habits”.
II. “693” stands for “we are busy”.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Who among A, B, C, D and E is the tallest?
I. E is taller than three of them but not as tall as A.
II. B is taller than D and C; but not tall as A.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

In a seven-storey building with one flat on each storey, who among A, B, C, D, E, & F occupies the middlemost flat?
I. A and D occupy the flats on the two extremes storeys and they have C and E as their immediate neighbors.
II. The flat occupied by B is not in the middle.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Which code stands for “Brazil” in a code language in which “Mob” stands for “Argentina.”?
I. “Dip Mob Nod” denotes “Brazil defeated Argentina”, in that code.
II. “Italy defeated Argentina” is denoted by “ Sip Dip Mob” in that code.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 5. (Single Selection)

What is the area of a circular playground that has a wire fencing around it?
I. The cost of fencing was Rs. 15, 626 at the rate of Rs. 35 per Kg.
II. The fencing is 63 meters away from the center of the playground.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Analytical Reasoning - V

Description:

Read the following information and answer the questions.

(A) A Cultural Organization desires to organize a programme of two categories, Viz.: Classical Dance performances and Music Concerts in a week commencing from Sunday to Saturday.
(B) There will be four dance performances viz: Kathakali, Bharatnatyam, Katthak and Oddyssi, and three musical concerts : Pure Classical, Semi Classical and Light music.
(C) Of these seven performances, no two of the same category will be organized on two consecutive days.
(D) The programme is to start with Kathakali, and Semi-Classical is to be organized on the middle day of the week.
(E) Bharatnatyam is to be organized on the previous day of Pure Classical.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Bharatnatyam can be organized on:

1. only Tuesday
2. only Friday
3. only Thursday
4. cannot be determined
5. None of these

Question 2. (Single Selection)

With the given specifications, the only programme that can be arranged on Monday is:

1. Semi classical
2. Light music
3. Pure classical
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
 

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Which of the following can be the last programme of the week?

1. Oddyssi or Katthak
2. only Oddyssi
3. only Pure classical
4. cannot be determined
5. none of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

If the programme is required to start with Pure Classical on Sunday, which of the conditions given above can NOT be adhered to?

1. Only (E)
2. Only (C)
3. Only (D)
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Katthak can be organized on:

1. only Thursday
2. only Friday
3. only Saturday
4. on Tuesday or Saturday
5. None of these
 

Analytical Reasoning - VI

Description:

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit
(3) if either I or II is implicit;
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit
(5) if both I and II are implicit.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statement
The only way to contain the circulation of black money in the market is to make the tax laws more liberal and user friendly.

Assumptions
I. Tax laws in India are draconian and inadequate.
II. Circulation of black money in the market is undesirable.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statement
Teachers of many schools and colleges are breaking all norms of the profession and provoking unnecessary controversies by entering into the active party politics.

Assumptions
I. Teachers should be above party politics.
II. Teachers should take part in social activities rather than party politics.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statement
What is needed at the center to-day is the will and determination to govern and not authoritarian government.

Assumptions
I. Authoritarianism and effective governance go hand in hand.
II. Will and determination to govern and non-authoritarian government are the two sites of the same coin.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statement
India needs competent manpower just as urgently as it needs massive capital inflow for rapid economic development.

Assumptions
I. India cannot achieve fast economic growth without massive does of capital.
II. Competent manpower is necessary for rapid economic development.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statement
If you want to understand the determinants of effective leadership, this is one of the available books.

Assumptions
I. If is essential for everyone to understand the determinants of effective leadership.
II. Wrong understanding may be gained if this book is not read.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

 

Analytical Reasoning - VII

Description:

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions, which are numbered I, II and III. Assuming that all the given statements are True, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Time Limit: 4 min 10 sec

Question 1. (Single Selection)

Statements
All fans are phones. All phones are letters. Some letters are bulbs.

Conclusions
I. Some letters are phones.
II. Some phones are fans.
III. All fans are letters

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Only III follows
4. Only II and III follow
5. None follows

Question 2. (Single Selection)

Statements
Most psychologists are historians. No historian is economist. All economists
are psychologists.

Conclusions
I. Some historians are psychologists
II. All psychologists are economists
III. No economist is historian.

1. Only II follows
2. Only I and II follow
3. Only II and III follow
4. Only I and III follow
5. None of these
 

Question 3. (Single Selection)

Statements
Some flowers are gifts. All gifts are books. All books are tables.

Conclusions
I. Some tables are flowers.
II. Some flowers are tables.
III. All tables are books.

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Only I and II follow
4. Only II and III follow
5. None of these

Question 4. (Single Selection)

Statements
Some banks are factories. Some factories are offices. All offices are prisons

Conclusions
I. All prisons are factories.
II. Some Banks are prisons.
III. Some offices are banks.

1. None follows
2. All the three follow
3. Only I and II follow
4. Only II and III follow
5. Only I and III follow

Question 5. (Single Selection)

Statements
All principals are teachers. All teachers are schools. All schools are grounds.

Conclusions
I. Some teachers are grounds.
II. All teachers are principals.
III. All principals are grounds.

1. Only I and II follow
2. Only I and III follow
3. Only II and III follow
4. None follows
5. All follow

 

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Technical - Other

ESSAR PAPER ON 1st JULY

Technical Questions:

1) Composition of gunmetal?.

2) What is the fuel used in airplanes?.

3) Specific heat capacity of air?.

4) Melting point of Aluminum?.

5) If a ball is kept at aheight of x(m),from that position it is dropeed .Does the p.e is equal to the K.e if  the ball goes inside the earth as same distance where it is relieved?.

6) Viscosity of the lubricant ---------- with increase in temperature?.

7) What amount of power required to make the 2-strke petrol engine to 4-stroke diesel engine?.

8) Which engine is the most efficient in terms of compression ratio?.

9) for the same compression ratio heat removed in each cycle is efficient in otto or diesel cycle?.

10) Use of draft tube in turbine ?.a) to increase work o/p of runner b) To increase turbine output.

11) Percentage of carbon in toolsteel?.

12) Introduction of sulphur in mild steel increases or decreases the machinability?.

13) Is bernoullis theorem is applicable for steady or unsteady flow?.

14) Axial turbine is of which type?.a) high head b) low head.

15) corrosion is inhibited due to oxidation or reduction?.

16) Binary power cycle uses ---------as working fluid?.

17) the purpose of runner in casting ----------

18) shape of a u.d.l.of cantilever beam is?.

19) which has high coefficient of friction ?.disc or band brakes

20) Engine valve seat is cooled at ----- temperature in liquid nitrogen(-180C)

21)Bucling is high in bar which is greater or smaller in length?.

22) Formula for deflection of beam? Ans; PL/AE

23) Which law says that pressure can be transferred from onr point to another in an undiminished form?.

24) Is Vane pump is Positive or non-positive displacement pump?.

25) As the altitude why density of the decreases?.

26) In the reversible adiabatic process entrophy is constant or not?

27) In which process the temperature of the system changes but there is no heat transfer to the surroundings?.

 

In Technical cum HR Interview:  

a)      I explained my miniproject

b)      Asked question in my area of specialization?

c)      Asked my name details?.

d)      What is ur future plan about ur career?

It is quite easy , There was appreciable elimination in GD .(checked only the logical ability , clarity of thought and simple english)

Apart from that First round is  online test comprises of 120 question equally divided into four sections (V,L,Apti,Tech).U need to be really quick in this because there will be Time count on the screen itselt.

 

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Whole Testpaper2

ESSAR PAPER ON 14th AUGUST 

Hi friend.....This is just to give a brief idea about ESSAR STEEL selection procedure.....

PATTERN: 
Written Test,
GD,
Technical Interview,
HR Interview.
 

WRITTEN : There is no negative marking (All are objective type only)
Aptitude : Time:80min
Total 120 Qs, 40-reasoning, 40-Arithmatic, 40-English, 
In this section cut-off is 27 only and you have to get 9 in each section i.e there is a sectional cut-off.

Be careful about sectional cut-off. Don,t concentrate on any one section more...Try to get 9 marks first in each section .Out of these three sections arithmetic is quite easy, reasoning and English are little bit time consuming. At last try to fill all questions. Don,t leave any question.......

Preparation : Quantitative aptittude,Verbal and non-verbal reasoning by R.S.AGARWAL are enough.
Technical( for EEE) : Time:30min, 50 questions(for all).Cut-off is 23.It is also quite easy.... In technical they will ask only basic questions.....No indepth questions.
At the time of our test, they haven,t covered all the subjects....They concentrated more on dc motors, dc generators only. And some questions on batteries and on power systems etc......

Some questions are like this.....
1. Given voltage and power ratings of three bulbs and asked to find which bulb has large resistance?
2. In batteries after completion of  charging which colour gas is emitted from it?
3. In dc generators brush lead is given to which side(i.e towards rotor direction or in opposite direction) to avoid armature     reaction?
4. Given an application and asked which type of dc motor is used?
5. One question from dc machine windings.......
6. Basic questions from transformers......(1 or 2) etc.... 

Note: Don,t go for test by studying dc machines only.....you may suffer...But concentrate more on dc machines(out of 50 they gave upto 30 questions).....You will qualify in written easily......Try to score maximum in technical paper.It will add value to you throughout the selection procedure.

GROUP DISCUSSION:
This may or may not be there(depending on the number of selected candidates in written ).It is just for formality......Ur performance in GD plays less role and ur percentage and written performance plays more role to get through GD.But try to perform better.......Topics are very common topics. You can clear it easily.... 

TECHNICAL INTERVIEW: On the next day....
It is the toughest round. They will test you in depth. Most were eliminated here only...Here also % plays a vital role. He may ask ur favorite subject...and may ask very deep questions in that....

Questions asked for me are:
1. Tell me about ur self?   told confidently....
2. Which is ur favourite subject?   told machines....
3. Have you seen machine rotor any time? told yes....(I haven,t seen the rotor any time....)
4. why each rotor slot is partitioned into small strips?    unable to understand the question....But tried to answer it(about laminations and Cu losses
etc...) He does not satisfied......
5. In ac machines can we get any speed range?ans: we will have some limitations because of  losses etc..explained
6. Draw the characteristics of Zener diode and explain it,s applications?I did....
7. Tell me about IGBT?Some how explained but not completely....

and some other, unable to remember.sorry.........He sent me to the HR round....

HR INTERVIEW:
He is very friendly....He invited me with a cherishing face. So I felt free. He asked abot my eye site (because i am wearing glasses). If eye site is more he will reject u nicely... After that a general HR interview was done....It,s not a problem. He given a HR form for all most all the people who came for HR. 

After some time they told results will we sent to ur respective colleges.......and we left the venue. Results came after a month.......(on sep 13th). But I haven,t got the job............I felt very sad..........In that list total 38 members were selected......

After some days (on oct 12th )they sent another list. By God,s grace I was also selected in that list (another 17 was selected). i.e until that date we are in waiting list..... I came to know that we are all in waiting list because of eye site.........

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Whole Testpaper1

ESSAR PAPER ON 14th AUGUST AT VIJAYAWADA


Test Center: KLCE, ViJayawada. Time and Date: 9.45 - 14/8/2006.
No of Students attended for written test: 870 from 18 Colleges (only for boys). Branches: ME, EEE, EIE, CE, IPE and INSTRUMENTATION.

Selction Stages: Written Test, GD, Technical Inteview, HR Int, Group talk.
Procedure: For Written Test: Total 120 Qs, 40-reasoning, 40-Arithmatic, 40-English, Time:80min.

After aptitude Technical written test: 50Qs, Time:30min. Cut off: For Aptitude Each Section - 9, Total - 27/120 (min).

For Technical - 23/50 (min).
Books to be Followed: For Aptitude: RS.AGARWAL,S QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE AND VERBAL-NONVERBAL REASONING BOOKS, For Technical: IES solved papers from Khanna publishers ( for MECHANICAL).

Hints: For Aptitude minimum preparation is sufficient, as time is less only go for selected Qs in those books. since cut-off is only 9 its easy to complete written test, but care must be taken not to spend on only one group (i.e., either reasoning or arithmatic or english).just attempt all the Qs as there is no negative marking, such that you may be easyly qualified for aptitude test.

For technical:
As I mentioned go through that book especially - Initial theory for each chapter before going to multiple choices in that book, practice all multiple Qs in that book as max of Qs are given from that directly.Some of the subjects you must concentrate on Production and Manufacturing, Metallurgy and Material Sciences, Thermal, Design, Hydraulics.As cutoff is 23 Take care of this section, maximum disqualified from this section itself, but if u go through that its very very easy.

GD Topics:
My topic is RELATION BETWEEN MAFIA LEADERS AND POLITICAL LEADERS AND HOW IT EFFECT THE ECONOMICAL GROWTH OF OUR COUNTRY. Topics are quitely different from software interviews. This is toughest topic they given on that day. Just speakout 2 or 3 times fluently its enough. they wil not give much importance to this stage.

Now the results are based on your performance in written test and your %marks(its important) not GD. mostly 75% above wil be selected.(120 members are short listed for next process)

ON AUGUST 15th 2006: The interview.

first the technical interview: they will start this section from Qs like Tell me about yourself, hobbies, xtra curicular activities etc like this, all this is to make us feel comfort. next they wil ask concept oriented Qs from our subjects. however this section some bit tough, those who are good in basic concepts they will easily go through next process.

Hints:Dress code must be maintained for interview process, be confident  while answering Qs even they are wrong, keep a pleasent smile in your face, max 15 min they will interview, also know something about company that will be added advantage.

some Qs they asked me:
1) what is the gauge pressure inside the room? ans: zero

2) bernoulis equation?

3) what happens if refrigerator door opens?

4) differentiate between annealing and normalising?

5) counter sinking and counter boring? just like........

i answered on an Avg he asked me : you answerd 50-50 then why wil i hire you? this Qs helps me alot for my selection. i answered already my prepared answer. i also tell him about the comapny details also, then he impress my answer i also drawn attention from HR he,s also there interviewing othet people simultaneously.then i got a HR form.(90 members shortlisted).

HR interview:
you have to fill HR form first, neatly and confidentially. HR interviewer is friendly and he wil ask general Qs like
1) why did u take ME branch?

2) about yourself?

3) family background?

4) why do you want to join in our company?

5) what do u know about our company?

6) what,s the salary you expecting? 

i answerd these Qs well. Then they will gather all the selected candidates upto now in a room. they will observe the personalities. and then the GROUP TALK: in this section you have to tell about yourself for 2min to the selected candidates, every one should do that. the HR and Technical interviewers observe us, along with our resumes, written test performances, interview performances, pesonality.(55 members shortlisted upto now). They wil tell results will be announced after a month

on september 13th results send to the college: 38 memebers are selected. on october 12th selection reviewed: total 48 members selected. ME-13, EEE-17, EIE-6, CE-6,INST-6.

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Whole Testpaper

Essar Sample Questions

In an ideal gas compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies?
Kinetic theory of gases assumes that collisions between the molecules are?
The condition of perfect vacuum that is at absolute zero pressure can be attained at?
Specific heat of air?
Which law states that internal energy is function of Temperature?
Minimum work done for an adiabatic process the value of n?
Air Refrigerator works on?
1 watt = 1Nm/S
1 h.p = ?kw
When crude oil heated Which Hydro carbon comes first?
What is the purpose of Supercharger?
1Kg of carbon to CO, Amount oxygen required?
Horse power per tones of refrigeration?
Scale formation on the surface of the boiler tubes due to ?
Axial shift in steam turbine occurs due to?
Latent heat of vapourization at low pressure and temperature?
Shaft revolving in a bearing which pair?
Difference between dedendum and addendum?
The fatique life of a part can be improved by ?
Rotational tendency of force?
Acetylene dissolved in ?
The frequency of transverse vibration is 3hz then critical speed?
More viscous lub oil?
Example for Non destructive test?
Advantage of V belt?
In gear boxes Which type of key is used
A structural member subjected to an axial compressive force is called?
Pig iron is produced in which furnace?
Heat generation of arc welding is due to ?
In what angle does an object thrown height will travel the longest distance?
Angle of contact between the journal and bearing?
The coupling is required to connect two parallel shaft distance between the shaft is small and variable?
Carbon is added to steel to increase its hardness-True/False
Wings of airplane are made by---
To protect from thrust which type of follower is used?
With increase in temperature--- Viscosity of liquid---
Heavy machine beds are made of CI for-------
For shock resistance and vibrations we use ----
Rupture strength==== ?
Washer is used for-------
Surface endurance limit depends on (toughness/surface tension/yield strength/surface finish)
In a uniformly distributed load of 6n/m over a 5 meter length simply supported beam, the value of B.M at the point where shear force is zero (17.5/22.5/55/75)
Cam size depends on (base circle/pitch circle/prime circle/none)
Poisons ratio is higher in (rubber/steel/wood)
In drill tool carbon % is (<0.4 %, 0.8% -1.6%, 1-2.5%)
finishing operation in lathe is done at(low speed/high speed)
degree of freedom in super structure (1/positive/negative/zero)
axial compressors follow the process in ideal conditions (adiabatic/isotropic/isothermal)
forced draft has negative pressure drop(true or false)
advantage of v-belt?
The key used in the gears for transmitting power(flat/saddle/spline/square)
dye penetration test is (pouring/surface tension/capillary/none)
poisson ratio?
endurance limit is depend upon—1.toughness 2.elasticity 3.britleness?
in which furnace ,pig iron is made?
corrosion resistant material?
centipoise is unit of ?
broaching is made to produce?
steady rest is used for?
drill angle?
In parson,s turbine ,relation between angles?
v-belt angle?
Refrigerant used in refrigerator?
Composition of babbit metal?
Cantilever beam failure of surface finish is represented by?
At what angle in the valve timing, Diesel engine injection occurs?
Name any one non destructive test?
Clutch is located between?
What is the Melting pt of iron?
Name any one Gear material?
Drill material composition?
Which mechanism is used to hold the gear ?
Reynolds number range for laminar flow –?
Nusselt (for natural) number is function of which number?
Angle of contact between journal and bearing?
What is the function of cutting fluid?
Dual cycle combination of which two cycles?
In screw jack --------which thread is used?—
ACME thread angle?
Frequency of a system is 3 Hz then find the speed in rpm?
For which gear shafts are co-axial?
say true/false:
in simple gear train every shaft is attached with one simple gear only
Radiation heat transfer is varied with T to the power of 4.

GD topics:

Democracy is the only way to sustain economy growth

Should Indian youth involving Politics

Foreign investment should allow directly to India

Foods come first ethics come later

TV channels can be regional , International

 

Essar Placement Paper : Essar Paper Candidate Experiences KLC COLLEGE ,VADESVARAM - 14 August 2006

first written: total 120 que each carry 1 mark
                   aplitute(1-40)  cutoff 9 .
                   quans from verbal and non-verbal of r.s agrawal(41-80)  cutoff 9.
                   verbal&english(81-120)  cutoff 9.
                
                   technical written:(1-50):it is very important one as this exam is for eee,me,ice
                   i am from eee.so we got questions from manchines mainly on d.c motors and power systems
                   its cutoff is 23.same each que carry 1 mark
 
 
after written gd :
topic :reservation
and some common topic only
 
 
then after gd follows technical interview
finally hr interview
this will give u a brief idea .work hard in technical u will surely pass it.because technical will me main consider there.
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